Yes, you can say the same when replacing $2$ with an integer $a \geqslant 2$.
Lemma. Suppose that $a \geqslant 2$, $m, n \in \mathbb{N}$ and $\gcd(m, n)=1$. Then $\gcd(a^m-1, a^n-1)=a-1$.
Proof. It is obvious that $(a-1) | \gcd(a^m-1, a^n-1)$. So, we only need to prove that $\gcd(a^m-1, a^n-1) | (a-1)$.
It is well known that if $\gcd(m, n)=1$, then there exist $k, l \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $mk-nl=1$. If is obvious that $(a^n-1)|(a^{nl}-1)$, therefore
$$
\gcd(a^m-1, a^n-1) | (a^{nl}-1),
$$
and for the same reason
$$
\gcd(a^m-1, a^n-1) | (a^{mk}-1).
$$
Now we just observe that
$$
(a^{mk}-1)-a\cdot(a^{nl}-1) = (a^{nl+1}-1)-(a^{nl+1}-a) = a - 1,
$$
therefore
$$
\gcd(a^m-1, a^n-1) | (a-1),
$$
QED.
Now we can prove the main statement: for $b \geqslant 2$ we have:
$$
\gcd(b^m-1, b^n-1) = b^{\gcd(m,n)}-1.
$$
Proof. Set $a = b^{\gcd(m, n)}$, $m'=m/\gcd(m,n)$ and $n'=n/\gcd(m,n)$. Clearly, $\gcd(m',n')=1$, and by the lemma we have
$$
\gcd(a^{m'}-1,a^{n'}-1) = a-1,
$$
which is exactly what we need, QED.