I have a problem trying to understand the proof:
Theorem $\boldsymbol{1.1.5.}$ For natural numbers $a,m,n$, $\gcd\left(a^m-1,a^n-1\right)=a^{\gcd(m,n)}-1$
Outline. Note that by the Euclidean Algorithm, we have $$ \begin{align} \gcd\left(a^m-1,a^n-1\right) &=\gcd\left(a^m-1-a^{m-n}\left(a^n-1\right),a^n-1\right)\\ &=\gcd\left(a^{m-n}-1,a^n-1\right) \end{align} $$ original image
We can continue to reduce the exponents using the Euclidean Algorithm, until we ultimately have $\gcd\left(a^m-1,a^n-1\right)=a^{\gcd(m,n)}-1$. $\square$
I see that the next iteration (if possible) is $\gcd(a^{m-2n}, a^n-1)$. However, why is the conclusion is true by euclidean algorithm?