Is the following statement true?
Let $f: \mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ be continuous and differentiable.
$f$ Lipschitz $\leftrightarrow \exists M:\forall x\in\mathbb{R}\ |f'(x)|\leq M$
If $f'$ is bounded, it is Lipschitz, that's obvious.
Does that work the other way around?
Let $f$ be $M$-Lipschitz, that is to say $\forall x_1, x_2\in\mathbb{R},\ |f(x_1) - f(x_2)| \leq M|x_1 - x_2|$, where $M$ is independent of $x_1, x_2$.
Let $x_1 <x_2$ be arbitrary. $f$ is continuous, so by the mean value theorem,
there exists $c\in\mathbb{R}, x_1 < c < x_2$, such that $f'(c) = \frac{f(x_2) - f(x_1)}{x_2 - x_1} \Rightarrow |f'(c)| = |\frac{f(x_2) - f(x_1)}{x_2-x_1}| \leq M$.
Does this hold? Can you, using the mean value theorem, "reach" every point in the derivative?
Also, another question: If $f$ is Lipschitz, is it necessarily differentiable?
Thanks!