Any two norms on a finite dimensional linear space are equivalent.
Suppose not, and that $||\cdot||$ is a norm such that for any other norm $||\cdot||'$ and any constant $C$, $C||x||'<||x||$ for all $x$. Define $||\cdot||''=\sum |x_i|\cdot||e_i||$ (*). This is a norm and attains at least as large values as $||\cdot||$ for all $x$.
Could this be used as part of a proof? That two norms $||\cdot||_1,||\cdot||_2$ are equivalent means that there are $m,M$ such that $m||x||_1 \leq ||x||_2 \leq M||x||_1$ for all $x$. In the above I only say that there cannot be a norm such that there does NOT exist an $M$ such that $||x||\leq M||x||'$ for any other norm $||\cdot||'$, but I'm really not sure that proves the entire assertion.
If this is utter nonsense, some hints would be appreciated, thank you.
(*The $e_i$ form a base and sloppily assumed the space to be real.)