$$\lim_{n\to \infty}\left(\frac{n}{n+1}\right)^n = \lim_{n\to \infty}\frac {1}{\left(\frac{n+1}{n}\right)^n}=\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac {1}{\left(\frac nn+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n}=\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac {1}{\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n}$$
We know that: $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n=e$$
$$\color{red}{\boxed{\displaystyle\color{black}{\quad\therefore\quad\lim_{n\to \infty}\left(\frac{n}{n+1}\right)^n=\frac 1e\quad}}}$$
And for the intuitive part: $$\begin{array}{|c|c|}
\hline \text{Value of }\color{black}{n} & \left(\frac{\color{black}{n}}{\color{black}{n}+1}\right)^{\color{black}{n}} \\
\hline
1 & 1.\overline6 \\
2 & 0.562 \\
3 & 0.512 \\
4 & 0.482 \\
5 & 0.462 \\
6 & 0.448 \\
7 & 0.438 \\
8 & 0.430 \\
9 & 0.424 \\
100 & 0.373 \\
\hline
\end{array}$$
And: $$\frac 1e\approx0.3678794...$$
Sure enough, we are approaching $1/e$ as $n$ tends to $\infty$.
Furthermore, you could think of it that way:
As $n$ gets really really large, $1/n$ will be very very small.
As $n$ gets really really large, the coefficients and number of terms of $(a+b)^n$ will also get really large. That's why even if $1/n\approx0$ when $n$ gets big, the expression $\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n$ will approach a number greater than one, and who has to do with the amount of terms and coefficients present in $(a+b)^n$, and that number is simply $e$. To show more what I mean, look at this example: $$\begin{align}(1+\color{blue}{0.1})^{10}=&1^{10}+\color{green}{10} \cdot1^9 (\color{blue}{0.1})+\color{green}{45}\cdot1^8 (\color{blue}{0.1})^2+\color{green}{120} \cdot1^7 (\color{blue}{0.1})^3+\color{green}{210} \cdot1^6 (\color{blue}{0.1})^4\\&+\color{green}{252}\cdot 1^5 (\color{blue}{0.1})^5+\color{green}{210}\cdot 1^4 (\color{blue}{0.1})^6+\color{green}{120}\cdot 1^3\cdot (\color{blue}{0.1})^7+\color{green}{45}\cdot 1^2 (\color{blue}{0.1})^8\\&+\color{green}{10}\cdot 1 (\color{blue}{0.1})^9+(\color{blue}{0.1})^{10}\\\,\\\approx&2.5937424601\end{align}$$
Note: The digit $2$ present in the mathematical constant $e$ comes from:
We have: $\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n\,\,\text{(1)}$ and $1^n=1\quad\text{where $n\in\Bbb R$}$. That's why there will always be a $1$ left no matter how large $n$ is when we expand the expression $\text{(1)}$.
From the binomial theorem, the second coefficient in the expanded form of $(a+b)^n$ is just $n$. And therefore the second term in the expansion of $\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n$ will be: $n\times1^{n-1}\times\frac1n$ which is equal to $1$.
But in the limit the OP asks about, we are dividing $1$ by $\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n$, so it is natural that we get at the end $1/e$.