We had a theorem that the means of a sequence also converges:
Let $(a_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ be a convergent sequence. Then $\displaystyle \overline a_n=\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{a_k}n$ also converges.
I've tried to prove it:
$|\overline a_n-a|=\frac1n|\sum_{k=1}^n(a_k-a)|\leq\sum_{k=1}^{M-1}|a_k-a|+\sum_{k=M}^n|a_k-a|$
The second sum is $<\frac{\varepsilon}2$, because there is an $M\in\mathbb N$ so that $(a_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ converges. Now you can consider all $n\geq\max\{M,\frac2{\varepsilon}\sum_{k=1}^{M-1}|a_k-a|\}$ and so $|\overline a_n-a|<\varepsilon$.
But can you also say that there is a $K\in\mathbb N$ such that $\frac1n\sum_{k=1}^{M-1}|a_k-a|<\frac{\varepsilon}2$ for all $n\geq K$? And do I have to take the first sum from $k=1$ to $M$ or can you do it as above?
Thanks for helping.