The abstract of this paper says:
"It is well-known that any permutation can be written as a product of two involutions."
I was looking for any web resource that can provide an affirmation and (hopefully easy) proof of this statement -- can anyone please help?
And if any permutation can indeed be written as a product of two involutions, are the following guesses correct?
- If $P$ is a permutation and $X$ & $Y$ are involutions, and $P = XY$, then $P^{-1} = YX$
- If $X$ & $Y$ are distinct involutions such that neither is the identity permutation $I$, then the permutation $XY$ is not an involution.
- The only ways to express any involution $X$ as a product of two involutions is $X = XI$ & $X = IX$ (given that $I$ itself is an involution)
Thanks ...
Let, $\beta=(6789)$ \begin{pmatrix} 6&7&8&9\ 7&8&9&6\ \end{pmatrix}
Then, your comment means: $\alpha\beta(16)= (1789623)=$ $$1\to7, 7\to8, 8\to9, 9\to6\to 1, 6\to2, 2 \to3.$$
But, have: $(12345)(6789)(16)=$ $$1\to 6\to7, 6\to1\to 2, 7\to8, 8\to9, 9 \to6, 2\to3, 3\to4, 4\to5, 5\to1.$$ So, it should be: $\alpha\beta(16)= (178962345).$
– jiten Dec 01 '22 at 04:09