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In Tim Gower's blog post: How to discover a proof of the fundamental theorem of arithmetic. he gives a proof of Euclid's Lemma using Lagrange's Theorem, but at the end he links to an older post giving a "direct" proof based on descent steps of the Euclidean algorithm, but without invoking the algorithm. There, in the "Proving the lemma $p|ab \implies p|a$ or $p|b$" section, Gowers considers counterexamples to Euclid's lemma.

if $p$ divides ab without dividing either or , how can one find any other example of a prime dividing without dividing or ?

To create new examples, he suggests varying $a$ in two ways:

  1. Let $a' = a+p$. Then $a'b=(a+p)b = ab + ap$, which is divisible by $p$ since $p$ divides both RHS terms. However $p \nmid a+p$ and $p \nmid b$, therefore we have a new counterexample to Euclid's lemma.
  2. For some integer $h < b$ let $a' = ha$.

My question is why must $h$ be less than $b$? Gowers says...

What happens if we replace $a$ by $ha$? Well, we know that $p$ divides $hab$, since it divides $ab$, but perhaps it divides $ha$. Of course, if $p $ does not divide $h$, then we suspect that $p $ will not divide $ha$ either, but that is what we are trying to prove. But hang on! Our counterexample was supposed to be minimal, so as long as $h$ is smaller than $b$ we are all right. So we now have two methods of producing new examples: multiply by a number smaller than $b$, and add or subtract a multiple of $p$. The question now is: can we use these two processes to construct a smaller example?

Why should $h < b$? What does he mean by "we are all right"?

Does he mean we need $hab > ab$ otherwise we violate the minimality of ? In that case, all we need is $h > 1$.

Does he mean we want $hab < ab$? I don't think that's what he is saying, but even still, in this case, all we need is $h < 1$.

Or does he mean that $ha$ is a new example by itself? In that case $h > b$ to not violate minimality of $ab$.

p.s thanks @BillDubuque and @joriki for checking over my question.

Bill Dubuque
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    The claim appears to be that, if we choose $h<b$ and such that $p\nmid h$ then $p$ can not divide $ha$ since if it did $ha$ would be a smaller counterexample to Euclid than $ab$ is. – lulu Mar 05 '23 at 00:32
  • @lulu But that's not needed since when $a<p$ we can use the descent $a \to p\bmod a,$ as explained here. – Bill Dubuque Mar 05 '23 at 00:38
  • @BillDubuque Oh, agreed. This seems a bit of a long way round the barn. – lulu Mar 05 '23 at 00:39
  • Yes, it's not clear why Gowers is doing that since it only obscures the (Euclidean) heart of the matter and needlessly complicates the proof. – Bill Dubuque Mar 05 '23 at 00:40
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    The key idea (obscured by Gowers page) is: the integers $x$ such that $,p\mid xb$ are closed under subtraction, so closed under remainder (= iterated subtraction), so closed under gcd (= iterated remainders), so since they include $x=a$ and $x = p$ they also include $,x=\gcd(a,p)\ $ [$=\color{#c00}1$ by $,p\nmid a,$], so $,p\mid \color{#c00}1\cdot b.,$ See here for elaboration. This will be greatly clarifed when one studies ideal theory (Euclidean $\Rightarrow$ PID). – Bill Dubuque Mar 05 '23 at 01:01
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    Regarding possible ways to prove the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, in the paper of Pierre Samuel that I linked here, he examines in detail approaches based on all possible permutations of a few fundamental theorems (including those mentioned above). – Bill Dubuque Mar 05 '23 at 01:23
  • @BillDubuque This derivation is the one Tim Growers's is writing about. I haven't yet studied how this relates to the version in your second comment. – ssayed Mar 11 '23 at 02:19
  • That's a bit different. That method, interpreted constructively yields what I call Gauss's algorithm for computing modular inverses and fractions, e.g. see here. If we know that all $,a\not\equiv 0,$ are invertible $!\bmod p,$ then this implies Euclid's Lemma, by $,a\not\equiv 0,\ ab\equiv 0!\underset{\times\ a^{-1}}\Rightarrow! b\equiv 0,,$ so $,p\nmid a,,p\mid ab \Rightarrow p\mid b\ \ $ – Bill Dubuque Mar 11 '23 at 03:19

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