0

Edit:I'm not interested in solving it numerically

I'm trying to find an equation of roots of

$x \cos{x}-1$

I've looked at this post, but doesn't answer what I'm looking for

To be clear, as an example, the roots of $\cos{x}-.5$ are:

$x = (6 π n + π)/3, n \in \mathbb{Z}$

Is there no defined way to do the same thing with $x\cos{x}-1$? If so, is there a proof this can't be done? Or is there something else I should know about this problem?

IV_
  • 6,964
user761996
  • 57
  • 4
  • 1
    You solve for any numerically. – A rural reader Dec 22 '22 at 20:48
  • I'm aware that you can do that. Is there a proof that that is the only way of doing it? – user761996 Dec 22 '22 at 20:49
  • 5
    Only numerical solution.. because belongs to transcendental functions. – Narasimham Dec 22 '22 at 21:02
  • 1
    Whether it's the 'only way' depends on what tools are available. If you didn't have square root available, you would have to use numerical methods to solve $x^2=2$ too. In the same way that you define square root, you could define a new operation to be one of the solutions to your equation, once you have proved that it exists and specified which one you want if there is more than one. – Ted Dec 22 '22 at 21:07
  • 1
    Many attempts on a series solution failed. Likely, one needs another method, like integral representations of the roots, but this is very tedious. – Тyma Gaidash Dec 23 '22 at 00:49
  • Roots of a similar $x\cosh(x)-1=0$ appear here – Тyma Gaidash Dec 23 '22 at 02:31
  • 3
    There is an asymptotic expansion for the roots for large $|k|$: $$ \frac{\pi }{2}(2k + 1) - \frac{{( - 1)^k }}{{\frac{\pi }{2}(2k + 1)}} - \frac{{6 + ( - 1)^k }}{{6\left( {\frac{\pi }{2}(2k + 1)} \right)^3 }} - \frac{{80 + ( - 1)^k 249}}{{120\left( {\frac{\pi }{2}(2k + 1)} \right)^5 }} - \ldots $$ When $k$ is any non-zero integer, this will give an approximate enumeration of the zeros. – Gary Dec 23 '22 at 02:44
  • 1
    For the series expansion of the root near $0$ of $x \cos(x) - t$, see OEIS sequence A185142. However, this will not converge at $t=1$. – Robert Israel Dec 23 '22 at 16:14
  • 2
    @Narasimham "because belongs to transcendental functions" is not the cause. There are transcendental functions that have an elementary inverse. We don't want to spread misbelief. Could you please correct your comment? – IV_ Dec 24 '22 at 12:29

4 Answers4

4

If you look for the zeros of function $$f(x)=x\cos(x)-1$$ they will be closer and closer to $(2n+1)\frac \pi2$.

Expanded as an infinite series around $\color{red}{x_0=(2n+1)\frac \pi2}$ $$f(x)=-1+\sum_{k=0}^\infty (-1)^n \,\frac{ k \cos \left(\frac{\pi k}{2}\right)-x_0 \sin \left(\frac{\pi k}{2}\right)}{k!}\,(x-x_0)^k$$ Truncate to some order and using power series reversion $$\color{blue}{x_{(n)}=x_0-\left(\frac{1}{x_0^3}+\frac{2}{3 x_0^5}+\frac{83}{15 x_0^7}+O\left(\frac{1}{x_0^9}\right)\right)+}$$ $$\color{blue}{(-1)^{n+1}\left(\frac{1}{x_0}+\frac{1}{6 x_0^3}+\frac{83}{40 x_0^5}+\frac{5}{2 x_0^7}+O\left(\frac{1}{x_0^9}\right)\right)}$$

which is quite accurate even for very small values of $n$ $$\left( \begin{array}{ccc} n & \text{estimate} & \text{solution}\\ -4 & -10.90373354 & -10.90373353 \\ -3 & -7.979630987 & -7.979631071 \\ -2 & -4.487698238 & -4.487669604 \\ -1 & -2.011120445 & -2.073932809 \\ +1 & +4.917179487 & +4.917185925 \\ +2 & +7.724153466 & +7.724153192 \\ +3 & +11.08590172 & +11.08590173 \\ +4 & +14.06601357 & +14.06601357 \\ \end{array} \right)$$

2

The keyword you need is: closed form.

$$x\cos(x)-1=0$$

The left-hand side of your equation is the function term of an elementary function.

$$\cos(x)=\frac{1}{2}e^{ix}+\frac{1}{2}e^{-ix}$$ (Wikipedia: Trigonometric functions)

The following solution theory is, unfortunately, not yet generally known.

$$x\left(\frac{1}{2}e^{ix}+\frac{1}{2}e^{-ix}\right)-1=0$$

This equation defines an algebraic relation between more than one algebraically independent monomials ($x$, $e^{ix}$). The left-hand side of this equation is therefore not in a form to read its inverse as an elementary function which we can read from the equation. That means we cannot rearrange the equation for $x$ by applying only finite numbers of elementary functions/operations from the left to the left-hand side and to the right-hand side which we can read from the equation.

If elementary partial inverses exist, is a different mathematical problem.

$$\frac{1}{2}x(e^{ix})^2-e^{ix}+\frac{1}{2}x=0$$ $x\to\frac{t}{i}$: $$-\frac{1}{2}it(e^t)^2-e^t-\frac{1}{2}it=0$$

The left-hand side of this equation is an algebraic function of both $t$ and $e^t$. Liouville proved that such kind of functions (over a complex domain without isolated points) doesn't have elementary partial inverses: How can we show that $A(z,e^z)$ and $A(\ln (z),z)$ have no elementary inverse?

If the equation has solutions that are elementary numbers, is a different mathematical problem.

The equation is also an irreducible algebraic equation of $t$ and $e^t$. Lin proved, assuming Schanuel's conjecture is true, that such kind of equations don't have solutions except $0$ that are elementary numbers. You can read this also from Chow.

Closed-form inverses can give hints for properties and calculation of the inverses. The inverse relation, Lcos, of the functions with the function term $x\cos(x)$ is mentioned in [Vazquez-Leal et al. 2020] table 11 and 13 and can be represented in terms of the inverse relation Lcosh as presented there.

We can take these inverse relations as closed forms because some of their algebraic properties and their applicability for some other kinds of equations are presented in the cited article.

[Vazquez-Leal et al. 2020] Vazquez-Leal, H.; Sandoval-Hernandez, M. A.; Filobello-Ninoa, U.: The novel family of transcendental Leal-functions with applications to science and engineering. Heliyon 6 (2020) (11) e05418
$\ $

see for example i.a.:

What does closed form solution usually mean?

How to know if I can't solve an equation with "standard" methods?

Why some inverse functions do not have a closed form

IV_
  • 6,964
2

After transforming $x\cos(x)$ into $\left(\frac\pi2\text{sgn}(x)+x\right)\sin|x|$ , there is an explicit solution using Fourier sine series of an inverse function. Note the scaling was adjusted for a more accurate graph:

enter image description here

setting $x=-1$ gives:

$$\boxed{\sec(a)=a\implies a=-\frac\pi2-\frac1\pi\sum_{n=1}^\infty \sin(n)\int_0^\frac\pi2 t\sin\left(n\left(t+\frac\pi2\right)\sin(t)\right)(2t\cos(t)+\pi\cos(t)+2\sin(t))dt=-2.073932809\dots}$$

Which converges slowly here. A basic attempt at the coefficients expands $\sin(y)$ as a series and the inner $\sin(t)$ with exponential functions. Then we used the binomial theorem:

$$\int_0^\frac\pi2 t\sin\left(n\left(t+\frac\pi2\right)\sin(t)\right)(2t\cos(t)+\pi\cos(t)+2\sin(t))dt=\sum_{k=0}^\infty\sum_{m=0}^{2k+1\text{ or }\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{m!(2k-m+1)!}\left(\frac{in}2\right)^{2k+1} \int_0^\frac\pi2 t((2t+\pi)\cos(t)+2\sin(t))\left(t+\frac\pi2\right)^{2k+1}e^{i((2(m-k)-1)t-m\pi} dt $$

The indefinite integral is a sum of four incomplete gamma functions which are too long to write out as a final answer. Hopefully, there is a simpler expansion. Similar methods will probably find more fixed points.

Тyma Gaidash
  • 12,081
1

COMMENT.- Each time that $f(x)=x\cos(x)$ is equal to $1$ you have a root of $g(x)=x\cos(x)-1$ so you do have the equation $$\cos(x)=\frac1x$$ In other words you have the solutions are the intersections of the hiperbola $y=\dfrac1x$ and the curve cosinus $y=\cos(x)$. You don't have periodicity of these zeros and for each root you must to solve a trascendental equation to which apply numerical methods in order to get an approximated solution.

There are no closed form for all the roots.

Piquito
  • 29,594
  • To calculate each of the infinitely many roots you have a transcendental equation for which there is no way to solve it in a precise analytical way, only numerical methods. In addition, these roots are determined by the intersection of two curves of a different nature, (algebraic and transcendental, one periodic and the other not) from which it results that there is no periodicity in the roots and the distances that separate them are all different. It would be illusory to pretend that there is a closed form to express all the roots. Of course I did not prove it but mine was only a comment. – Piquito Dec 24 '22 at 13:30
  • And $\cos\left(\dfrac{\pi}{3}\right)=\dfrac12$ so $\pi$ is friend of rational. This is a change of speech. – Piquito Dec 25 '22 at 12:53
  • Do you have a way? Or at least a proof that there isn't? I recognize that my comment should have said that "apparently" there is no closed form, but I based myself on the fact that the distances between the roots are "apparently" all different and without periodicity (in addition, the innocent hyperbola is in frank connection with Euler's gamma constant). Are you among the people who have lowered my reputation from 26,961 points to 26,896 just like that. as an "ukase" not tsarist but Leninist or Stalinist? – Piquito Dec 26 '22 at 17:03