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To which degree must I rotate a parabola for it to be no longer the graph of a function?

I have no problem with narrowing the question down by only concerning the standard parabola: $$f(x)=x^2.$$

I am looking for a specific angle measure. One such measure must exist as the reflection of $f$ over the line $y=x$ is certainly no longer well-defined. I realize that preferentially I should ask the question on this site with a bit of work put into it but, alas, I have no intuition for where to start. I suppose I know immediately that it must be less than $45^\circ$ as such a rotation will cross the y-axis at $(0,0)$ and $(0,\sqrt{2})$.

Any insight on how to proceed?

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    Instead of rotating the parabola, just note that all lines parallel to the axis of the parabola do intersect it at a single point, while all lines with a different slope will either intersect it twice or not at all, with the exception of a tangent line. – Intelligenti pauca Jul 14 '22 at 13:22
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    @Intelligentipauca This kind of looks like an answer, and should be written as such. There is currently a discussion on one of the answers about the need to prove statements like the ones in your comment. – Brian Drake Jul 15 '22 at 11:37
  • @BrianDrake Of course that statement can be proved, it's just two lines of algebra. But I don't think it's necessary to write another answer: there are already more than enough. – Intelligenti pauca Jul 15 '22 at 12:10
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    @Intelligentipauca You say that like it’s obvious, but the discussion I referenced suggests otherwise. Anyway, I guess it is the principle that matters here: answers should be posted as answers; if we start allowing exceptions for “obvious” things, where do we stop? – Brian Drake Jul 15 '22 at 12:20
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    I believe this is a question many "young" students have asked themselves at one point. It should be compared with the graph of a north-opening hyperbola branch: $$f(x)=+a \sqrt{1+\frac{x^2}{b^2}}$$ where $a>0$ and $b>0$ are two constants. Note that this graph (in contrast to the parabola) has oblique asymptotes, and in this case you can in fact rotate the entire graph by a bit (the maximal tilt depending on the ratio between $a$ and $b$) and still have the graph of a function! – Jeppe Stig Nielsen Jul 15 '22 at 14:21
  • Unless you're referring to a particular but unspecified function, how could that be a valid Question?

    Will it not be the case that as the parabola is rotated beyond the bounds of one function, it starts to describe another?

    – Robbie Goodwin Jul 15 '22 at 19:17
  • @JeppeStigNielsen I’ve given this some thought. One would have to rotate the hyperbola branch past $$\theta = \tan^{-1}(b/a)$$ clockwise in order for the branch to no longer constitute a function. – Chris Christopherson Jul 16 '22 at 20:45
  • OK, everybody, if you tilt the parabola, there will be a point where the derivative blows up. At this point you have a vertical tangent. And at that point, of course, there is a single value of y. So the tilted parabola is ALWAYS a function, though its domain may be a single x value. heh heh... – richard1941 Jul 19 '22 at 19:10
  • See the accepted answer with Understand 1D FEM solution using quadratics elements. There we have truncated parabolas. Being a function or not gives rise to an interesting phenomenon concerning the usefulness of these finite elements. – Han de Bruijn Jul 26 '22 at 19:34

10 Answers10

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Rotating the parabola even by the smallest angle will cause it to no longer be well defined.

Intuitively, you can prove this for yourself by considering the fact that the derivative of a parabola is unbounded. This means that the parabola becomes arbitrarily "steep" for large (or small) values of $x$, i.e. its angle being closer and closer to $90^\circ$, and rotating it by even a little will tip it over the $90$ degrees.


For a formal proof, first, we need to explain exactly what a rotation of a parabola is. In general, a rotation in $\mathbb R^2$ is multiplication with a rotation matrix, which has, for a rotation by $\phi$, the form $$\begin{bmatrix}\cos\phi&-\sin\phi\\\sin\phi&\cos\phi\end{bmatrix}$$

In other words, if we start with a parabola $P= \{(x,y)|x\in\mathbb R\land y=x^2\}$, then the parabola, rotated by an angle of $\phi$, is

$$\begin{align}P_\phi &= \left.\left\{\begin{bmatrix}\cos\phi&-\sin\phi\\\sin\phi&\cos\phi\end{bmatrix}\cdot\begin{bmatrix}x\\y\end{bmatrix}\right| x\in\mathbb R, y=x^2\right\}\\ &=\{(x\cos\phi - y\sin\phi, x\sin\phi + y\cos\phi)|x\in\mathbb R, y=x^2\}\\ &= \{(x\cos\phi-x^2\sin\phi, x\sin\phi + x^2\cos\phi)| x\in\mathbb R\}\end{align}.$$


The question now is which values of $\phi$ construct a well defined parabola $P_\phi$, where by "well defined", we mean "it is a graph of a function", i.e., for each $\overline x\in\mathbb R$, there exists exactly one value $\overline y$ such that $(\overline x,\overline y)\in P_\phi$.

Clearly, if $\phi = 0$, we have $P_0=\{(x, x^2)|x\in\mathbb R\}$ which is well defined, because for every $\overline x$, the value $\overline y=\overline x^2$ is the unique value required for $(\overline x,\overline y)$ to be in $P_0$. Also, if $\phi=\pi$, then $P_\pi = \{(-x, -x^2)|x\in\mathbb R\}$ is also well defined because if $(\overline x,\overline y)\in P_\pi$, then $\overline y=-\overline x^2$.


Now, observe what happens if $\phi\notin\{0,\pi\}$. For now, let's assume that $\phi\in(0,\frac\pi2)$. In that case, $\sin\phi\neq 0$, which means that the equation $$x\cos\phi-x^2\sin\phi=0$$ has two solutions. One solution is $x=0$, the other is $x=\frac{\cos\phi}{\sin\phi} = \cot\phi$.

This means that, if we take $\overline x=0$, there are two values of $x$ that can create a point $(\overline x, \overline y)$, and we have two possible values of $\overline y$ as well. One is $\overline y_1 = 0$, the other is $$\overline y_2 = x\sin\phi + x^2\cos\phi = \frac{\cos\phi}{\sin\phi} \sin\phi + \left(\frac{\cos\phi}{\sin\phi}\right)^2\cos\phi =\cos\phi + \frac{\cos^3\phi}{\sin\phi}$$

and, because $\phi\in(0,\frac\pi2)$, we know that $\overline y_2>0$, which means $\overline y_2\neq \overline y_1$, and therefore, $P_\phi$ is not a graph of a function.


Note that the options when $\phi$ is in one of the other three quadrants can be solved similarly as the one above, or, you can use symmetry to translate all of the other three cases to the one already solved above.

5xum
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    Quite obvious now that you say it. The slope of the parabola can be as steep as you want it. Say at some point it will have slope $b<0$. Hence rotating it $\sin^{-1}(1/b)$ degrees clockwise will cause it to be undefined. – Chris Christopherson Jul 14 '22 at 06:57
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    @ChrisChristopherson A lot of things are obvious once you say them, that doesn't mean they are easy ;) – 5xum Jul 14 '22 at 07:00
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    I'd suggest you to rewrite "will cause it to be undefined" as "will cause it not to be the graph of a function". – Intelligenti pauca Jul 14 '22 at 08:41
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    @Intelligentipauca then why ever use the phrase “well-defined”? – Chris Christopherson Jul 14 '22 at 09:33
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    @ChrisChristopherson Note, I also added a formal proof of why every nonzero (or non$\pi$) angle causes the "well-definedness" to disappear. I must say I am rather surprised at how "elementary" it is. No derivatives needed anywhere in the proof. – 5xum Jul 14 '22 at 09:47
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    @ChrisChristopherson Indeed, that phrase should be used very rarely, if at all. – Intelligenti pauca Jul 14 '22 at 11:16
  • @Intelligentipauca indeed even just not the graph of a Cartesian function. A polar function could still have as its graph the rotation of a parabola, for example $r=\left(1-\textrm{cos}\vartheta\right)^{-1}$ – A. R. Jul 14 '22 at 19:38
  • @5xum I cant thank you enough for your thorough answer. I'm also quite happy the proof seems fun and elementary. – Chris Christopherson Jul 14 '22 at 20:32
  • I'm not a mathematician, so I can understand anything below "tip past 90". But I think a square root function for rational numbers looks like a parabola on its side, so I'm not sure how "tipping past 90" is intrinsically a problem. I am probably missing some important point though – OutstandingBill Jul 14 '22 at 23:11
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    @OutstandingBill The square root function is half of a parabola on its side. A whole parabola on its side is not the graph of a function, because you can have two $y$ values for the same $x$ values, which directly contradicts the definition of a function. – 5xum Jul 15 '22 at 06:28
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    There is consensus as to what "well-defined" means in math and it is a perfectly good terminology. So is "undefined" but it means not defined -- as in there are no values assigned (for example, over the reals, arcsin(2) is undefined). It is not the same as "not well-defined" which is what was meant in the first comment. – Pratyush Sarkar Jul 15 '22 at 06:32
  • @OutstandingBill In other words, this is the square root function, and this is a parabola on its side. The first image is an image of a function, the second is not. – 5xum Jul 15 '22 at 06:34
  • @PratyushSarkar I completely agree and “not well-defined” is what I meant and I’m glad that was clear. :) – Chris Christopherson Jul 15 '22 at 06:34
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    @ChrisChristopherson: A rotated parabola is still a perfectly well-defined graph. It is just not a graph of a (well-defined) function. – Ilmari Karonen Jul 15 '22 at 11:49
  • @IlmariKaronen this does bring up another question: with what definition of graph are you using? I was taught (I think) $$\text{graph} f={(x,f(x)): x\in \mathbf{R}}.$$ This presupposes that $f$ is a function no? If not, then what is $f$? A rogue function that changes its mind? – Chris Christopherson Jul 15 '22 at 19:36
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    @ChrisChristopherson: I was using the general definition that a graph is a subset of the plane. There are other definitions, like ${(x(\alpha), y(\alpha)): \alpha \in S}$ for some parameter set $S$, but they work out to be essentially the same thing. – Ilmari Karonen Jul 15 '22 at 21:12
  • "even by the smallest angle" But it is a function if rotated by (a multiple of) 180 degrees. I realize you are writing in the context of starting to rotate the parabola but that part isn't actually in your sentence & this case might get lost. (From another answer it seems also the exact question may have changed.) – philipxy Jul 16 '22 at 06:18
  • Consider this parabola P (equation $y=x^2$). Now rotate it by $\frac{\pi}{180}$ counterclockwise (one degree) around its vertex (the origin). The new curve is not the graph of a function. For some $x$ values (including $x=0$) there are two corresponding $y$ values on the curve. But for other $x$ values, there are no $y$ values. What is the unique $x$ value such that there is a single $y$? The rotated parabola has a vertical tangent there. – Jeppe Stig Nielsen Jul 16 '22 at 13:55
  • The intrinsic problem seems to be that "function" and "equation" are not equivalent. – OutstandingBill Jul 16 '22 at 22:42
  • @OutstandingBill I don't see why that would be a problem. There are two words, and they mean two different things, and I don't understand why that would constitute an "intrinsic problem" – 5xum Jul 17 '22 at 17:02
  • @5xum I meant that it's a problem if you want to define a function for a rotated graph. But that's not really the intent of the question, so you're right, it's not a problem in this context. – OutstandingBill Jul 17 '22 at 22:29
  • @JeppeStigNielsen this is a very good question. How would one solve it? I feel that it would have something to do with setting the discriminant of a quadratic equal to zero but this assumes we have the equation of a quadratic (a function) which we wouldn't have if we tilt our parabola. – Chris Christopherson Feb 25 '23 at 21:14
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    @ChrisChristopherson, Before I rotated the parabola, the tangent in question was not vertical, but had a slope $\tan \frac{89\pi}{180} = \cot\frac{\pi}{180}$, or about $57.3$. We had $y=x^2$, so $\frac{dy}{dx}=2x$ and it is $57.3$ for $x=28.6$. So this gives you the the tangent point $(x, x^2)$ before the rotation, and all you need to do is figure out where this point goes after a rotation of $\frac{\pi}{180}$. – Jeppe Stig Nielsen Feb 26 '23 at 11:49
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You write (emphasis added):

I am looking for a specific angle measure. One such measure must exist as the reflection of $f$ over the line $y=x$ is certainly no longer well-defined.

It sounds like you are looking for $\theta_\text{min}$, where a rotation through an angle $\theta \geq \theta_\text{min}$ produces a graph that is no longer the graph of a function, but a rotation through $\theta < \theta_\text{min}$ still produces the graph of a function.

But, in this case, the equality needs to be on the other side: a rotation through $\theta > \theta_\text{min}$ produces a graph that is no longer the graph of a function, but a rotation through $\theta \leq \theta_\text{min}$ still produces the graph of a function.

In fact, as we will show, $\theta_\text{min} = 0$: any rotation (except for a half-revolution) produces a graph that is no longer the graph of a function.

You then write:

I suppose I know immediately that it must be less than $45^\circ$ as such a rotation will cross the y-axis at $(0,0)$ and $(0,1)$.

Actually, it crosses the $y$-axis at $(0,0)$ and $(0,\sqrt{2})$. But the important point is that it crosses a vertical line at multiple points.

So now we want to rotate the parabola through some other angle $\theta$ and check whether it crosses a vertical line at multiple points. 5xum’s answer shows how to do this, and that is great. But for all the talk about it being “elementary”, it requires transformation matrices and trigonometry. A truly elementary solution would require no knowledge beyond lines, parabolas and basic algebra: such a solution is presented below.

Instead of rotating the parabola, then checking if it crosses a vertical line at multiple points, we can rotate the axes, then check if the parabola crosses a line that is “vertical” relative to the rotated axes at multiple points. This is the idea behind Taladris’s answer.

As stated in that answer, it always does (again, excluding half-revolutions). But how can we prove this?

This “rotated vertical” line could (relative to the original axes) be anything other than a vertical line. That is, it could be a line with gradient $m$, for any value of $m$. Now, for any such value, we can find a corresponding line that crosses the parabola at multiple points. To see this, note that for $m = 0$, we can simply use any line above the origin, and for any other value of $m$, we can use the line through the origin, which crosses the parabola there and at a second point given by:

\begin{align} mx &= x^2\\ x &= m\\ y &= m^2. \end{align}

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    Oof I can't believe I blundered so bad on where the rotated $45^\circ$ parabola crosses the $y$-axis. I love the simplicity of your solution as well. – Chris Christopherson Jul 15 '22 at 04:33
  • I further suppose that it should be said that $\theta_\min=0$ really is $\theta_\inf=0$. But my understanding is this distinction can be done away with given the context. – Chris Christopherson Jul 15 '22 at 05:11
  • @ChrisChristopherson I was thinking of adding that term, but you beat me to it. Upon reading the question again, I realised that the question’s wording also suggests you are looking for a minimum, rather than an infimum. And, with that interpretation, $\theta_\text{min} = 0$ is clearly a nonsensical answer. I am not sure what you mean by “this distinction can be done away with given the context”. – Brian Drake Jul 15 '22 at 06:22
  • when I wrote the question I naively thought it was possible for a minimum to exist. I now know it doesn’t but rather the set of angles in question has a greatest lower bound that doesn’t exist in the set itself: i.e. $\theta_\inf=0$. – Chris Christopherson Jul 15 '22 at 06:27
  • The question might serve as a good beginner analysis question: “Show that the infimum of the positive angles for which the parabola $f(x)=x^2$ is not a function is zero.” Solutions could follow any of the answers here. – Chris Christopherson Jul 15 '22 at 06:31
  • (1/2)This is a much cleaner solution than mine, which is more of an all-out brute force attack, grinding expressions away until something nice pops out. However, I feel obliged to take issue with you arguing how this is elementary, and my answer is "far from elementary". on a very basic level, I don't think this is any more elementary than my answer. I would argue that the two proofs, mine and yours, are essentially "identical" in their approach, with the big difference being that my solution explicitly says what a rotation is, while this solution just assumes we know what the rotation is. – 5xum Jul 15 '22 at 12:44
  • (2/2) In other words, you assume the fact that (1) rotating the parabola is equivalent to rotating the axes in the other direction, and (2) that rotating the axes produces a straight line through $0$. That makes your approach more high-schooler friendly, I agree, and as I said, it makes it cleaner. But it does not make it more elementary, in my opinion. – 5xum Jul 15 '22 at 12:46
  • @5xum (1/2) I will concede that in the other discussion, I was arguing semantics to some extent. But here, I am genuinely confused. “my solution explicitly says what a rotation is, while this solution just assumes we know what the rotation is” I don’t think you are asking me to define the word “rotation”, so what are you looking for? – Brian Drake Jul 15 '22 at 12:57
  • @5xum (2/2) “you assume the fact that … rotating the parabola is equivalent to rotating the axes in the other direction” Several other users assumed this too. Is this not a fundamental fact of geometry? “you assume the fact that … rotating the axes produces a straight line through 0” I actually assumed that rotating a vertical line through an angle that is not a multiple of half a revolution produces a diagonal (straight) line. Or to get straight to the point, that rotating a line produces a line. Again, is this not fundamental? – Brian Drake Jul 15 '22 at 12:57
  • @BrianDrake "Fundamental" is quite a tricky word. Anything other than axioms are not fundamental, on some way. And like I said, your solution is better, and cleaner, than mine. I just don't think it's "more elementary". It just hides more things under the surface. "elementary" is not the same as "easy". Elementary proofs can sometimes be very long and tedious, but so long as they assume very little, they are still elementary. And in how much we assume, our approaches are very similar. – 5xum Jul 15 '22 at 13:11
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My attempt to phrase Brian Drake's answer even more simply:

The original problem can be phrased geometrically as, "What is the smallest angle $\theta$ by which we can rotate the standard parabola $P$ around the origin in order to make its rotated version $R$ intersect a given vertical test line $v$ at two points?"

There are two keys to solving the problem.

Key #1: In this problem, position is relative! The absolute positions of the rotated parabola $R$ and vertical line $v$ on the $xy$-plane do not change whether or not $R$ describes a function.

Key #2: Rotations are also always relative!

Let's now bring these two ideas together.

According to Key #1, we can choose the $y$-axis for our vertical line $v$. Why this choice? Some reasons:

  • Lines passing through the origin have an easily written function
  • The $y$-axis passes through the origin and so has an easy function
  • Standard parabola $P$ also passes through the origin
  • Rotated parabola $R$ was generated from rotating $P$ around the origin and so also passes through the origin
  • So, the $y$-axis passes through both $R$ and $P$

Then, the relativity of rotation from Key #2 mean it's completely OK to think of $\theta$ as a rotating $v$ around the origin while keeping the standard parabola $P$ fixed.

And I think that makes it obvious that any non-zero $\theta$ will make the point that any diagonal line passing through the origin will intersect the standard parabola at two points.

Of course, if you're not a visual/intuitive person, then you can formally justify this result in many ways.

  • 5xum does it above using rotations. He finds that $x_{intersection} = tan(\theta)$.
  • Brian Drake does it above by noting that a diagonal line passing through the origin will have an equation $y = mx$ for some slope $m$. He then finds the (other) intersection of this line with the standard parabola by setting $y_{intersection} = mx_{intersection} = x_{intersection}^2 \implies x_{intersection} = m$.
  • These two solutions are related by the fact that for all lines, $tan(\theta) = \frac{sin(\theta)}{cos(\theta)} = \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} = slope = m$.
PDE
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  • The original problem didn’t specifically reference the $y$-axis; that was something that other users introduced because it helped to answer the question. Also, not every diagonal line intersects the standard parabola at all. Did you mean every diagonal line through the origin intersects the standard parabola at two points? – Brian Drake Jul 15 '22 at 12:34
  • “5xum does it above using polar rotations” I don’t know what the word “polar” means here. “for lines passing through the origin, $tan(\theta) = \cdots = m$” This is true for all lines. – Brian Drake Jul 15 '22 at 12:37
  • Hoping the edits help @BrianDrake – PDE Jul 16 '22 at 16:01
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Let $P_\theta$ be the parabola obtained from the parabola $P$ of equation $y=x^2$ by a rotation of angle $\theta\in(0,2\pi)$.

A rotation of $\pi$ is simply a symmetry about the origin so $P_\pi$ is the graph of $y=-x^2$, the graph of a function. Moreover, if $\theta=\frac{3\pi}{2}$, then $P_{\theta}$ is the graph of $x=y^2$, not the graph of a function. Similarly, if $\theta=\frac{\pi}{2}$, $P_{\theta}$ is not the graph of a function. From now on, we assume $\theta\notin\{\frac{\pi}{2},\pi,\frac{3\pi}{2}\}$.

$P_\theta$ is the graph of a function if and only if every vertical line intersects its graph in at most one point.

Assume that $P_\theta$ is the graph of a function. Then the line $L$ of equation $x=0$ intersects $P_{\theta}$ in one point, the origin. Now, rotate $P_\theta$ and $L$ by $-\theta$. The image of $L$ by this rotation is the line $L_\theta$ through the origin with inclination $\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta$. $L_\theta$ should intersects the parabola $P$ in exactly one point.

Since $\theta\notin\{\frac{\pi}{2},\pi,\frac{3\pi}{2}\}$, $L_\theta$ is neither horizontal nor vertical. It then intersects $P$ in two points, a contradiction.

As a conclusion, $P_\theta$ is the graph of a function if and only if $\theta=\pi$ (assuming $0<\theta<2\pi$).

Alan
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Taladris
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  • "Since $\theta\notin{\frac{\pi}{2},\pi,\frac{3\pi}{2}}$, $L_\theta$ is neither horizontal nor vertical. It then intersects $P$ in two points, a contradiction. " This is a nonsequitor. Just because $L_\theta$ is neither horizontal nor vertical, it does not mean it necessarily intersects $P$ in two points. For example, if $P$ were the graph of a constant function, then $L_\theta$ will intersect $P$ in one point, even if $\theta=\frac\pi4$, for example. – 5xum Jul 15 '22 at 06:38
  • @5xum: but $P$ is not the graph of a constant function. – Taladris Jul 15 '22 at 09:39
  • Well, sure, it is not, but you never proved the statement that all lines which are not horizontal or vertical necessarily intersect $P$ at two points. You just state that as a fact, when it is actually the crux of the argument. That's why I am saying it's a nonsequitor. You claim "$A$, therefore $B$", but you never proved that $A\implies B$ is true in itself. – 5xum Jul 15 '22 at 10:02
  • @5xum (1/2) “you never proved the statement that all lines which are not horizontal or vertical necessarily intersect $P$ at two points” That’s good, because that is a false statement. The answer refers only to one specific line. Still, it does not prove the claim you are referring to (unlike my answer). Nor does it prove this claim: “A rotation of $\pi$ is simply a symmetry about the origin so $P_\pi$ is the graph of $y=-x^2$”. Of course, in general, a reflection in the origin is not the same as a reflection in the $x$-axis. How far do we want to go? – Brian Drake Jul 15 '22 at 12:02
  • @5xum (2/2) To me, the core of this answer is the idea of rotating the vertical line instead of rotating the parabola. Even this is a bit lacking: for example, the answer could have made it clearer that the image of $P_\theta$ under the rotation by $-\theta$ is $P$, at the same time as discussing the image of $L$, which is why $L_\theta$ should intersect $P$ at exactly one point. But at this point, I am quibbling over so many aspects of the presentation that it would probably be better for me to write my own answer – which I did. – Brian Drake Jul 15 '22 at 12:03
  • "The answer refers only to one specific line"... well you also didn't prove it for that line. This is pointless quibbling over details, I have no interest in arguing semantics, when you know full well what I wanted to say. Your statement "it then intersects $P$ in two points" is completely unfounded, and it is unclear where it comes from. That was my complaint in the beginning, and it still is. There, I said my part, now argue semantics all you want and pick apart how this comment is somehow, somewhere, technically incorrect. – 5xum Jul 15 '22 at 12:37
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A part of the question is: how much do we have to rotate $y = x^2$ around the origin such that it hits the $y$-axis in a second point, in addition to the origin? To simplify this, instead of rotating the parabola (by $\varphi$) we can rotate the $y$-axis (by $-\varphi$). Now any non-vertical line through the origin has an equation $y=ax$ and $$x^2=ax$$ has a solution at $x=a$, so the line hits the parabola at $(a, a^2)$. We see that we cannot rotate the parabola even a tiny bit without losing the property that it is the graph of a function.

(In the above you may have noticed that I glossed over two cases: For $\varphi=\pi$ the $y$-axis is taken to itself, so it is vertical, and of course the parabola is mapped to $y=-x^2$, the graph of a function. And in the case $a=0$, corresponding to $\varphi=\pi/2$ or $\varphi=3\pi/2$, the point $(a,a^2)=(0,0)$ is the origin, so we would have to use a different line to show that the rotated parabola is not the graph of a function. But this is obvious.)

Carsten S
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HINT:

The convex region $\{(x,y)\ | \ y \ge x^2\}$ has $\{0\} \times [0, \infty)$ as recession cone.

$\bf{Added:}$ We can ask a related question: given a convex function $f\colon \mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$, ($f(0)=0$ to keep it simple), what are the cones with vertex at $(0,0)$ that fit inside the epigraph of $f$ ? Here is the answer: the derivative of $f$ is increasing, and its range is an interval $[m, M]$ (which could be infinite). The the slopes of the cone are $m$, $M$ ( the terminal slopes of $f$).

In our case for $f(x) = x^2$, $m=-\infty$, $M= \infty$, so the cone becomes a half-line.

Let's take another example:

$$f(x) = \log (\cosh x)$$

We have $f(0)= 0$, $f'(x) = \tanh x$. One checks that the larges cone that fits in has branches $y = \pm x$. ( that is the recession cone).

Question: what is the largest angle of rotation to still get the graph of a function? (left or right will be the same in this case).

orangeskid
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    This is beyond the question asker's math background. – qwr Jul 14 '22 at 22:35
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    @qwr How do you know? – Chris Christopherson Jul 15 '22 at 02:18
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    @qwr but yes... yes it is. – Chris Christopherson Jul 15 '22 at 02:19
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    @Chris Christopherson: You might get curious about recessions cones of (closed) convex sets. We can also say "Hint: the angle is $0$ because the function $x^2$ grows faster than any linear one $x \mapsto c x$ ". Cheers! – orangeskid Jul 15 '22 at 02:54
  • no one who has reached the math level to study convex sets will use the term "graph of a function" which only is used in prealgebra contexts before more abstract definitions of function are used – qwr Jul 15 '22 at 02:56
  • @qwr Hmm do people who reach this level never have questions about high school algebra? If they do, they just phrase it differently? How might someone who studies convex sets phrase such a question? I am actually curious. – Chris Christopherson Jul 15 '22 at 03:05
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    Well I my experience I only ever encountered the term "graph of a function" when in precalculus, a function was synonymous with the curvy thing you plot in the Cartesian plane, points (x,f(x)), which if you think about it is different than the function itself, which is this abstract map. And then you learn graph in math and CS has a totally different meaning. Maybe the plot has good visual intuition but I stopped seeing math problems about the plot itself later in my math studies. – qwr Jul 15 '22 at 03:18
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    @gwr: Added more details. I think we all agree it's an interesting question. I appreciate all the inputs & I am open to criticism :-) Cheers! – orangeskid Jul 15 '22 at 03:37
  • @qwr When I was at school, we studied 2 dimensional rotation matrices in the high school syllabus, soon after having covered simultaneous equations (one basically led directly on to the other). So while the workings are fiddly and complicated, the underlying mathematics is actually in fact fairly basic. – Prime Mover Jul 15 '22 at 12:55
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A little more generally ... Consider a non-degenerate (and, for the sake of this discussion, non-circular) conic with eccentricity $e>0$, focus $(f_x,f_y)$, focus-to-directrix length $d>0$, and major/transverse axis direction vector $(\cos\theta,\sin\theta)$. By the focus-directrix definition of a conic, the curve has this equation: $$\sqrt{(x-f_x)^2+(y-f_y)^2}=e \left(\; (x-f_x)\cos\theta+(y-f_x)\sin\theta-d \;\right) \tag1$$ Squaring and gathering terms gives us $$x^2 (1-e^2\cos^2\theta) - 2 x y e^2\cos\theta\sin\theta + y^2 (1-e^2\sin^2\theta) + \cdots = 0 \tag2$$ As a quadratic in $y$, the equation cannot represent a function of $x$. (Conceivably, the equation can give double-roots for every $x$, but this is clearly a degenerate case, which we're ignoring. (But see the Note below.)) Therefore, to have $y$ as a function of $x$, we need to eliminate the equation's quadratic-ness, which we do by making the coefficient of $y^2$ vanish. $$\sin\theta=\pm\frac1e \tag{$\star$}$$ We can conclude ...

  • For ellipses ($e<1$), equation $(\star)$ has no solutions, confirming the fact that no (non-degenerate) ellipse is the graph of a function.
  • For parabolas ($e=1$), equation $(\star)$ has the solutions $\theta=\pm90^\circ$. Thus, a (non-degenerate) parabola must have a vertical axis to be the graph of a function. (This answers OP's question.)
  • For hyperbolas ($e>1$), equation $(\star)$ has exactly two solutions. We can interpret this as saying that any (non-degenerate) hyperbola has exactly two orientations that make it the graph of a function; the reader can check that these orientations correspond to making one or the other asymptote vertical.

Note. Equation $(2)$ gives double-root $y$ value when its $y$-discriminant vanishes; that is, $$x^2 (1 - e^2) - 2 x ( f_x (1 - e^2) - e^2 d \cos\theta) + f_x^2 (1 - e^2) - 2 \cos\theta d e^2 f_x - d^2 e^2 = 0$$ For a polynomial in $x$ to vanish across a range of $x$-values, each coefficient must vanish. Thus, $1-e^2=0$, which implies $d\cos\theta=0$, and then also $d=0$. So, this situation applies only to a parabola with $d=0$, for which equation $(2)$ factors as $$\left(\;(x-f_x)\sin\theta - (y-f_y)\cos\theta\;\right)^2 = 0$$ making the parabola (a portion of) a "double-line" coinciding with its axis. (The "portion" consists of the focus and the points on the appropriate side of the focus to satisfy $(1)$.) In this case, the graph is a function except when that axis is vertical.

Blue
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Without any loss of generality, assume the center of rotation is the origin, so that the first coordinate of the image of any point $(x,y)$ under a rotation by $\theta$ equals $x\cos\theta - y\sin\theta.$

Because

$$\cot\theta \cos\theta - \cot^2\theta \sin\theta = \frac{\cos\theta}{\sin\theta}\cos\theta - \frac{\cos^2\theta}{\sin^2\theta}\sin\theta = 0,$$

the point $(\cot\theta,\cot^2\theta)$ on the parabola is mapped by a rotation of $\theta$ to a point with coordinates of the form $(0,y).$

Provided $\theta$ is not an integral multiple of $\pi/2,$ such a point exists and has positive distance from the origin, showing that $(0,y)\ne(0,0).$ However, because $(0,0)$ is also on the rotated parabola, the rotated parabola does not define a function in any neighborhood of $0.$

whuber
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A rigid parabolic arc remains a parabola for any arbitrary displacement or rotation imparted to the parabolic arc.

That is why we can describe any parabola in the plane by an intrinsic or natural equation

$$ \kappa = \dfrac{\cos^3\phi}{2f} $$

where $\kappa$ is curvature and $ \phi $ the rotation of tangent reckoned from its vertex V and $f= VF, $ its focal length.

enter image description here

In rectangular coordinates with any constants $(a,b,c,d)$ we have two connected arcs of the same parabola separated by a tangent parallel to x-axis (not shown):

$$ y = ax+b \pm \sqrt{cx+d}.$$

Narasimham
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enter image description here

$$\lim_{n\to\infty}{\alpha_n}=\frac{\pi}{2}$$ So we cannot rotate the graph of $y=x^2$ at all.