I apologize if this is a duplicate - I looked but didn't find one.
This question is sort of a sanity check.
Let $A$, $B$ be sets and define the boundaries $\partial A$ and $\partial B$ as usual.
Is it true that both $\partial (A \cup B) \subseteq \partial A \cup \partial B$ and $\partial (A \cap B) \subseteq \partial A \cup \partial B$?
It seems obvious, and the proofs seem really easy, but I haven't seen this fact written down anywhere.
To get started on the proofs I thought to look at a point $p$ which is in neither $\partial A$ nor $\partial B$ and then show it is not in either $\partial (A \cup B)$ or $\partial (A \cap B)$ by looking at different cases where $p$ is in the interior or exterior of $A$, $B$, taking intersections of neighborhoods, etc...
Thanks a bunch!