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Let $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be a (not necessarily bounded) domain and $1 \leq p \leq \infty$. Then define $L^p_{loc}(\Omega)$ to be the set of functions $f: \Omega \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ such that $$\Big(\int_K |f|^p\Big)^{1/p} < \infty, \quad \forall K \text{ compact.}$$

I have read that this space is a completely metrizable space but cannot find a proof so I would like to prove it myself but I am having some trouble. My approach is to find a metric such that convergence with respect to that metric agrees with convergence in $L^p_{loc}$. I am not sure if this is the right approach since constructing such a metric is not obvious. Is there a better way to prove this?

CBBAM
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    I would try something along the following lines $$d(f,g)=\sum_{n\geq 1} 2^{-n} \frac{\Vert f-g\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}}{1+\Vert f-g\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}}$$ where ${\Omega_n}{n\geq 1}\subseteq \Omega$, $\Omega_n\subseteq \Omega{n+1}$ and $\bigcup_{n\geq 1} \Omega_n=\Omega$. For example $$\Omega_n={ x\in \Omega \ : \ dist(x,\partial \Omega)<1/n}$$ might work if $\Omega$ is reasonably nice. Completeness follows from the fact that $L^p(\Omega_n)$ is complete and that Cauchy sequences of $d$ are Cauchy sequences of $L^p(\Omega_n)$ for all $n$. – Severin Schraven Feb 19 '24 at 19:28
  • @SeverinSchraven Thank you I will give that a try. How would one come up with such a metric on their own? What is the motivation behind it? – CBBAM Feb 19 '24 at 19:36
  • You need to be a little careful because you don't get a Hausdorff topology if you talk about functions. As is usual in integration, you need to talk about about equivalence classes of functions for the relation of equality almost everywhere to get a Hausdorff space. – P. P. Tuong Feb 19 '24 at 19:38
  • @P.P.Tuong Oh yes, I should have added that this is all to be interpreted as functions defined almost everywhere. Thank you. – CBBAM Feb 19 '24 at 19:41
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    Locally the space should look like $L^p$, thus you pick larger and larger subsets on which we know that the function is $L^p$ (that's the role of the $\Omega_n$). The problem is of course that the $L^p$ norms can blow up. There we use the idea that every metric $d$ is equivalent to a bounded metric $\frac{d}{1+d}$. The prefactors $2^{-n}$ renders the series finite and as $$2^{-n} \frac{\Vert f-g\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}}{1+\Vert f-g\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}}\leq d(f,g)$$ we get that Cauchy sequences of $d$ are Cauchy in $L^p(\Omega_n)$. Completeness of $L^p$ comes then to our rescue. – Severin Schraven Feb 19 '24 at 19:43
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    @SeverinSchraven It was mentioned that $\Omega$ is not necessarily bounded so such sets wouldn't work. I think a better choice of sets would be to define $$\Omega_n = B(0;n) \cap \Omega $$ and then take the sets $$K_n ={x \in \Omega_n : d(x,\partial \Omega_n) \leq 1/n }$$ which ensures that they are compact and their union covers $\Omega$. – Samir Feb 19 '24 at 19:45
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    @Samir That is indeed correct. Thanks for catching that. – Severin Schraven Feb 19 '24 at 19:46
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    A slightly more honest answer would be that this is a standard construction for many Fréchet spaces and I just have happened to have seen it before. – Severin Schraven Feb 19 '24 at 19:51
  • @SeverinSchraven Thank you very much for all the help! – CBBAM Feb 19 '24 at 19:54
  • @CBBAM Glad I could help. It would be great if you could write up an answer for the next person. There are quite a bunch of details to check. – Severin Schraven Feb 19 '24 at 19:56
  • @SeverinSchraven Yes that is a good idea. I will work out the details and then post an answer. – CBBAM Feb 19 '24 at 19:57
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    @CBBAM Would be great if you could send me a message once you are done, so I can upvote it :) I feel it's a really good question – Severin Schraven Feb 19 '24 at 20:00
  • @SeverinSchraven Will do, thanks again! – CBBAM Feb 19 '24 at 20:02
  • @SeverinSchraven I have been working on adding in some of the details and what I would like to show is that $f_n \rightarrow f$ in $L^p_{loc}$ implies $d(f_n, f) \rightarrow 0$. The problem I am having is that there an infinite number of norms $|\cdot|_{\Omega_k}$ in the sum so we have no uniform control over $n$ by taking some sort of maximum. Do you have any advice on how one can get some bound on these norms so that the sum can be made arbitrarily small? – CBBAM Feb 28 '24 at 20:44
  • @CBBAM We have $$ d(f_n, f) = \sum_{n\geq 1} 2^{-n} \frac{\Vert f_n -f \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}}{1+\Vert f_n-f\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}} = \sum_{n=1}^M 2^{-n} \frac{\Vert f_n -f \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}}{1+\Vert f_n-f\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}} + \sum_{n=M+1}^\infty 2^{-n} $$ as $$ 0\leq \frac{\Vert f_n -f \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}}{1+\Vert f_n- f\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}} \leq 1. $$ Hence, in order to make $d(f_n, f) \leq \varepsilon$ we first pick $M$ such the geometric series is smaller than $\varepsilon/2$ and then only need to make sure that the first $M$ terms together are $\leq \varepsilon/2$. – Severin Schraven Feb 28 '24 at 22:51
  • @SeverinSchraven Wouldn't the second equation imply an inequality as opposed to an equality in the first equation? – CBBAM Feb 29 '24 at 02:22
  • Yes, it would. It is a typo. – Severin Schraven Feb 29 '24 at 02:23
  • @SeverinSchraven So the second term is a geometric series so by choosing $M$ sufficiently large we can get it to be $\leq \epsilon/2$. Then we can use some sort of maximum argument to choose a constant $N$ such that for all $n \geq N$ we can bound the first term to also be $\leq \epsilon/2$. Is that the idea? – CBBAM Feb 29 '24 at 02:26
  • @CBBAM Given the type of questions you are asking I've decided to type up the answer myself. This seems to be more efficient for the both of us. – Severin Schraven Feb 29 '24 at 02:48

1 Answers1

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Constructing the metric:

As explained in my comments above, we want to pick semi-norms $L^p(\Omega_n)$ for "larger and larger" $\Omega_n$ in order to make sure that "locally our metric looks like $L^p$". A standard way of doing this (e.g. for Fréchet spaces) is to patch these semi-norms together in the following way $$ d(f,g) = \sum_{n\geq 1} 2^{-n}\frac{\Vert f-g \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}}{1+\Vert f-g\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}}. $$ First we note that the series above does indeed converge. For $\Vert f-g\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}$ finite for all $n$ we have $$ d(f,g)\leq \sum_{n\geq 1} 2^{-n} =1 $$ as $$ 0\leq\frac{\Vert f-g \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}}{1+\Vert f-g\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_n)}}\leq 1. $$ One can convince oneself that $d$ is symmetric and satisfies the triangle inequality (this might help for the later If $d(x,y)$ is a metric, then $\frac{d(x,y)}{1 + d(x,y)}$ is also a metric). In order for this to be a metric we need that $d(f,g)=0$ implies $f=g$. In order for this to be true, we need that $$ \bigcup_{n\geq 1} \Omega_n = \Omega. $$ Our goal is to metrize the space $L^p_\mathrm{loc}(\Omega)$, thus, we only know $\Vert f-g\Vert_{L^p(A)}<\infty$ for $A$ contained in a compact set. Hence, we need to make sure that $\Omega_n$ are contained in a compact set.

Now, if $\Omega=\mathbb{R}^n$, then we could simply take $\Omega_n=\overline{B(0,n)}$ (closed ball of radius $n$ centered at the origin). For a more general domain $\Omega\subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ one might be tempted to just pick $\Omega_n = \Omega \cap \overline{B(0,n)}$. What is the problem? Let's take $\Omega=B(0,1)$, then we see that $B(0,1) \cap \overline{B(0,n)} = B(0,1)$ is not contained in any compact subset of $B(0,1)$. The issue is that we are getting "too close to the boundary of $\Omega$". One way of staying away from the boundary is to just consider the set $$ A_n = \{ x\in \Omega \ : \ \mathrm{dist}(x,\partial \Omega) \geq \frac{1}{n} \}. $$ Clearly, $A_n$ is closed, never touches the boundary and $\bigcup_{n\geq 1} A_n = \Omega$ (assuming that $\Omega$ is open, alternatively we could assume that $\partial \Omega$ is a null set, then $\bigcup_{n\geq 1} A_n$ equals $\Omega$ up to potentially a null set, which is good enough for our construction). However, $A_n$ needs not be bounded (indeed, for $\Omega=\mathbb{R}^n$ we have $A_n=\mathbb{R}^n$).

The trick is to combine those two approaches. Namely, we can define $$ \Omega_n = \{ x\in \Omega \cap \overline{B(0,n)} \ : \ \mathrm{dist}(x,\partial (B(0,n)\cap \Omega) \geq \frac{1}{n} \}. $$ This definition makes $\Omega_n$ closed and bounded (hence compact) and we still have $\bigcup_{n\geq 1} \Omega_n = \Omega$. Indeed, let $x\in \Omega$. If $\Omega= \mathbb{R}^n$, then we have already seen that it works. Otherwise, we have for every point $x\in \Omega$ that $\mathrm{dist}(x,\partial \Omega)<\infty$. Using compactness we find $y\in \partial \Omega$ such that $\mathrm{dist}(x,\partial \Omega)=\vert x -y \vert$ (Showing that the minimum distance between a closed and compact set is attained). We have $\partial (B(0,n)\cap \Omega)\subseteq \partial B(0,n) \cup \partial \Omega$ (see Boundaries of finite intersections and unions of sets), thus, for $n\geq \vert x \vert + \mathrm{dist}(x,\partial \Omega)+1$ we have $$ \mathrm{dist}(x,\partial(B(0,n)\cap \Omega)) = \vert x-y \vert = \mathrm{dist}(x,\partial \Omega). $$ Hence, for $n\geq \max\{\vert x \vert + \mathrm{dist}(x,\partial \Omega)+1, 1/\mathrm{dist}(x,\partial \Omega)\} $ we have $x\in \Omega_n$.

Metric induces the correct topology:

We want to show that for $(f_n)_{n\geq 1} \subseteq L^p_\mathrm{loc}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and $f\in L^p_\mathrm{loc}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ it is equivalent to say either $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} d(f_n,f)=0$$ or $$ \forall K \subseteq \Omega \ \mathrm{ compact } \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\int_K \vert f_n -f \vert^p =0.$$

We start by showing that the later implies the former. For this we pick $\varepsilon>0$ and $M>0$ such that $$ \sum_{k=M+1}^\infty 2^{-k} = 2^{-M}<\varepsilon/2. $$ Then we note that \begin{align*} d(f_n,f)&= \sum_{k\geq 1} 2^{-k}\frac{\Vert f_n-f \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)}}{1+\Vert f_n-f\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)}} \\ &\leq \sum_{k=1}^M 2^{-k}\frac{\Vert f_n-f \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)}}{1+\Vert f_n-f\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)}} + \sum_{k=M+1}^\infty 2^{-k} \\ &< \sum_{k=1}^M 2^{-k}\frac{\Vert f_n-f \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)}}{1+\Vert f_n-f\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)}} + \varepsilon/2. \end{align*} However, $\Omega_k \subseteq \Omega$ is compact and hence $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \Vert f_n - f \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)} =0, $$ which allows us to find $N\geq 1$ such that for all $n\geq N$ and all $k\in \{1, \dots, M\}$ $$ \Vert f_n -f\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)} \leq \frac{\varepsilon}{2M}. $$ Thus, for $n\geq N$ we have $d(f_n,f)<\varepsilon$ and as we can do this for every $\varepsilon>0$ we get $\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} d(f_n,f)=0$.

For the other direction we note that every compact $K\subseteq \Omega$ is contained in some $\Omega_k$. To see this, we note that $\mathrm{dist}(K,\partial \Omega)>0$ (using again similar arguments to Showing that the minimum distance between a closed and compact set is attained). Hence, we can first pick $\ell >0$ such that $K \subseteq \overline{B(0,\ell)}$ (works as compact sets are bounded) and then we have by similar reasoning as above that for $k \geq \max\{ \ell+1, 1/\mathrm{dist}(K, \partial \Omega) \}$ that $K\subseteq \Omega_k$. We then conclude by noting that $$\Vert f_n-f\Vert_{L^p(K)}\leq \Vert f_n-f\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)} =2^k 2^{-k}\Vert f_n-f\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)} \leq 2^k d(f_n,f). $$ Note that this actually shows that convergence $f_n \rightarrow f$ in $L^p_\mathrm{loc}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ is equivalent to the convergence $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \Vert f_n - f\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)} $$ for every $k$.

Completeness of the metric space:

This last observation in the previous paragraph can be used to show that $(L^p_\mathrm{loc}(\mathbb{R}^n,d)$ is complete. Let $(f_n)_{n\geq 1}$ be a Cauchy sequence in $(L^p_\mathrm{loc}(\mathbb{R}^n,d)$. Then this implies that $(f_n 1_{\Omega_k})_{n\geq 1}$ is a Cauchy sequence in $(L^p(\Omega_k), \Vert \cdot \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)}$. As $(L^p(\Omega_k), \Vert \cdot \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)}$ is complete, we know that there exists $F_k \in L^p(\Omega_k)$ such that $\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\Vert f_n F^k\Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)}=0.$

We note that $\Omega_k \subseteq \Omega_{k+1}$ for all $k\geq 1$. We introduce $\Omega_0:=\emptyset$. Then, we can write $\Omega$ as the following disjoint union $$ \Omega= \bigcup_{n\geq 1} \Omega_{n} \setminus \Omega_{n-1}. $$ We define $f(x)=F^k(x)$ if $x\in \Omega_{k}\setminus \Omega_{k-1}$. It is easy to check that $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \Vert f_n -f \Vert_{L^p(\Omega_k)}=0$ for all $k$ and that $f\in L^p_\mathrm{loc}(\mathbb{R}^n)$.