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Introduction:

We know that:

$$\sum_{x=0}^\infty \frac{1}{x!}=e$$

But what if we replaced $x!$ with $!x$ also called the subfactorial function also called the $x$th derangement number? This interestingly is just a multiple of $e$ and an Incomplete Gamma function based sum. This will get us a new number as the $n=0$ and 1 terms diverge as a result of the reciprocal. I also use the Generalized Exponential Integral function and the Round function. The OEIS entry for the constant is A281682:

\begin{align*} S &=\sum_{x=2}^\infty \frac{1}{!x} =\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{\operatorname{Round}\bigl(\frac{x!}{e}\bigr)} =e\sum_{x=2}^\infty\frac{1}{Γ(x+1,-1)}= \\ &= e\sum_{n=3}^\infty \frac 1{Γ(x,-1)}=\sum_{X=0}^\infty \sum_{x=2}^\infty\frac{1}{Γ(X+1)Γ(x+1,-1)} =-e\sum_{x=2}^\infty\frac{(-1)^x}{E_{-x}(-1)}= -e\sum_{x=-\infty}^{-2}\frac{(-1)^x}{E_x(-1)} =1.63822707… \end{align*}

Possible Abel-Plana formula Application:

We can also use the Abel-Plana formula, and the alternate series version, to find an integral representation of the sum. You can also use other representations of the summand, but this integral is probably hard to work with.

Note the Abel-Plana formula may not work with the constant:

\begin{align*} S &=\sum_{x=0}^\infty\frac{1}{!(x+2)} =\frac{1}{2} + \int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{!(x+2)} + i\int_0^\infty\frac{\frac{1}{!(2+ix)}-\frac{1}{!(2-ix)}}{e^{2\pi x}-1} \, dx \\ \implies -\frac{S}{e} &=\sum_{x=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^x}{E_{-x-2}(-1)}=-\frac{1}{2e} + \frac i2\int_0^\infty \left[\frac{1}{E_{-ix-2}(-1)}-\frac{1}{E_{ix-2}(-1)}\right] \operatorname{csch}(\pi x) \, dx \end{align*}

See this nice closed form result of

$$\sum_{x=-\infty}^0 \text {Im}(!x)=-\frac{\pi}{e^2}$$

I do not think this simple looking problem has been posted so far.

The sum does not need to be in closed form.

You also can rewrite it in terms of a better sum. I am more looking for an evaluation or manipulation of the sum. Please correct any mistakes and give me feedback!

A Mittag-Leffler Insight:

Because $$\sum_{x=2}^\infty \frac{1}{!x} =e\sum_{x= 2}^\infty\frac{1}{Γ(x+1,-1)}= e\sum_{n=3}^\infty\frac 1{Γ(x,-1)} $$

one may notice the relation to the Mittag-Leffler function:

$$\text E_{a,b}(x)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^n}{Γ(ax+b)}$$

The only problem is if there existed a function for the incomplete gamma function analogue of the Mittag-Leffler function. Maybe one can find this function or use the already known one?

Another Integral Representation:

It can be shown that the following is true using @Jack Barber’s method in

$$\sum_\Bbb N \text{erfc}(x)$$

Here is an integral representation using the linearity of the Floor function and the Meijer G function:

$$\sum_2^\infty \frac{1}{!x}=-\int_2^\infty \lfloor x-1\rfloor \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{!x}dx=\int_2^\infty \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{!x} dx-\int_2^\infty\lfloor x\rfloor \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{!x} dx=\frac1{!\infty}-\frac1{!2}-\int_2^\infty \lfloor x \rfloor \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{!x} =-1-\int_2^\infty \lfloor x \rfloor \frac{d}{dx} \frac{1}{!x}dx= -1-\int_2^\infty \lfloor x \rfloor\left(-\frac{\text G_{2,3}^{3,0}\big(-1\left|_{0,0,x+1}^{\ \ \ \ 1,1}\right)}{e(!x)^2}-\frac{i\pi}{!x}\right)dx =\frac1e\int_2^\infty \frac{\lfloor x\rfloor\text G_{2,3}^{3,0}\left(-1\big|_{0,0,x+1}^{\ \ \ \ 1,1}\right)}{(!x)^2} dx+i\pi\int_2^\infty\frac{\lfloor x\rfloor}{!x}dx-1$$

The Meijer G function is hard to use, but you can come up with many more integral representations using alternate forms of the floor function; there is even one in terms of elementary functions.

A Manageable Series Expansion:

Converting the Round function to elementary functions, we have this form:

$$e\sum_{m=0}^\infty \sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{\left(\frac e\pi\frac{\tan^{-1}\left(\tan\left(\frac\pi en!\right) \right)}{n!}\right)^m}{n!}$$

After a bit more work, we remove $!n$ from the denominator replacing it with gamma regularized $Q(a,z)$:

$$S=\sum_{m=0}^\infty\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k e^{k+1}\binom mk\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{(!n)^k}{n!^{k+1}}=\boxed{e\sum_{m,k=0}^\infty\binom mk(-1)^k\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{Q^k(n+1,-1)}{n!}}$$

Shown here.

Conclusion:

A closed form is optional, but good alternative representations for $S$ would also work. Please do not make up any new function. Alternatively, what is $\sum\limits_{n=2}^\infty\frac{Q^k(n+1,-1)}{n!}$?

CiaPan
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Тyma Gaidash
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    $\sum\frac1{!x}$ converges at the same rate as $\sum\frac1{x!}$, which is already faster than exponential; asking for even better convergence seems very ambitious! – Greg Martin Aug 06 '21 at 20:30
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    @GregMartin I only asked in case there was no known way to evaluate the sum. The next best thing would be a better form sum. Do you have any ideas on how to evaluate it? – Тyma Gaidash Aug 06 '21 at 20:32
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    I cant seem to start. How did $$ \sum_{x=2}^\infty \frac{1}{!x}=e\sum_{x=2}^\infty\frac{1}{Γ(x+1,-1)}$$ ?? From -1 to $\infty$ ? – Al Brown Aug 06 '21 at 21:19
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    @AlBrown Please see this definition from Wolfram Functions. From -1 to infinity diverges. – Тyma Gaidash Aug 06 '21 at 21:21
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    @AlBrown Does this help? I would have done a wolfram alpha link, but it refuses to work, so here is a results photo. Notice the end result is the same. – Тyma Gaidash Aug 06 '21 at 21:29
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    Yes. Thank you. – Al Brown Aug 06 '21 at 21:47
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    Plus i saw what you added. I meant integral from -1, but im good – Al Brown Aug 06 '21 at 22:12
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    @Tyma Gaidash. Can there exist constants $A$ and $B$ such that $A\sum_{i=0}^{n}\frac{(-1)^i}{i!}+B(n!)=1$?. Because if there does exist such constants then shouldn't that makes the sum divergent??. – Star Alpha Aug 15 '21 at 08:58
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    We know that $!n=n!\sum_{i=0}^{n}\frac{(-1)^i}{i!}$. So we can write $\frac{1}{!n}$ as $\frac{A}{n!}+\frac{B}{\sum_{i=0}^{n}\frac{(-1)^i}{i!}}$. Then $S=A\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!}+B\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sum_{i=0}^{n}\frac{(-1)^i}{i!}}=Ae+B\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sum_{i=0}^{n}\frac{(-1)^i}{i!}}$. Now it's clear that $\frac{1}{\sum_{i=0}^{n}\frac{(-1)^i}{i!}}$ is approximately $e$ and summing it infinitely many times just diverges. So the original sum must diverge too. – Star Alpha Aug 15 '21 at 09:13
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    @JhumaSarkar If you mean that the sum diverges, then I guess the OEIS people made a mistake. OEIS A281682. We could probably find such constants numerically. Any other ideas? – Тyma Gaidash Aug 15 '21 at 11:44
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    Also the sum starts from n$\ge$2 and not positive n, where n is an integer. Unless you do an index shift, also changing the summand, the sum will not start at 0. – Тyma Gaidash Aug 15 '21 at 11:58
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    Wow! I never thought this would be my most popular question. – Тyma Gaidash Aug 16 '21 at 22:20
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    If a closed form were known, I'd expect the OEIS entry would give it. Most summations don't have any closed form. – Gerry Myerson Aug 22 '21 at 02:51
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    @GerryMyerson The question explicitly states that “the answer does not need to be in closed form”. I am more looking for an integral representation or sum representation of the constant which makes it much better to deal with. I already have a possible Abel Plana integral form of it, but it just plugs into the formula without any new insights. Do you have any ideas? – Тyma Gaidash Aug 22 '21 at 12:29
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    OK, but I know what a closed form is. "I am more looking for an evaluation or manipulation of the sum." I don't know what a manipulation of the sum is. As for an evaluation, just add up the first 20 terms, you'll get more than 15 decimal place accuracy. I strongly suspect that if the things you ask for were known, they'd be present at the OEIS, or at links given there. – Gerry Myerson Aug 22 '21 at 12:40
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    @GerryMyerson by “manipulation of the sum” it means to write the sum in a better form. I have looked in the OEIS, but found little. Thanks for the help though. – Тyma Gaidash Aug 22 '21 at 12:47
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    And what does "a better form" mean? I know there's not much at OEIS; I take that to mean there's not much known. – Gerry Myerson Aug 22 '21 at 12:53
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    Again, if the kind of thing you are after was already known, I expect it would show up at the OEIS; since it doesn't show up there, I conclude that nothing of the kind is known. I certainly don't know any techniques that would help here. – Gerry Myerson Aug 22 '21 at 13:03
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    This question has a sequel: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4251713/207316 My answer there lists this sum to 10,000 decimal places. – PM 2Ring Sep 27 '21 at 02:43
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    @Tyma If I did, I'd add it to my answer, or post it here. :) It would be great if there's a way to calculate large numbers of digits using straightforward machine integer arithmetic, like the factorial base e program, but I suspect that's not possible. Failing that, an algorithm that uses arbitrary precision arithmetic but which minimises expensive operations like division & multiplication would be nice... I guess there's not much motivation to work on this sum because it has no apparent use (unlike e or pi). – PM 2Ring Sep 27 '21 at 19:32
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    @Tyma I wasn't (only) talking about practical applications of this "derangement constant". I don't think it has much application in pure mathematics either, (but I'm certainly no expert on this topic), whereas constants like pi & e are relevant to many areas in pure mathematics. I agree that it is interesting to see alternate forms for this constant, even if they don't necessarily lead to more efficient ways to calculate it. – PM 2Ring Sep 28 '21 at 05:49
  • One maybe expands $Q^k(n+1,k)$ as $k$ integrals, switches with the sum, and evaluates to get $k$ integrals of a hypergeometric function, but this may be too complicated. At least, it works for $k=1$ – Тyma Gaidash Jan 24 '23 at 03:21
  • Another idea is $Q(n+1,-1)=e\sum\limits_{j=0}^n\frac{(-1)^j}{j!}$ – Тyma Gaidash Jan 24 '23 at 12:46
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    Hi, I have replaced the LaTeX/MathJax formatting of headers for the sections with a simple # markup, as they are actually not maths. Anyway, feel free to roll back my change if you don't like it. :) – CiaPan May 22 '23 at 09:30
  • To avoid over-editing, a better result is:$$S=e\sum_{n=2}^\infty\sum_{m=0}^\infty\frac{P^m(n+1,-1)}{n!}=e(-4+3e-e,Q_1(\sqrt2,i\sqrt2)+\dots)$$

    with $P(a,x)$ the lower regularized incomplete gamma function and Marcum Q. Evaluating $\sum\limits_{n=2}^\infty \frac{P(n+1,-1)^2}{n!}$ will be harder.

    – Тyma Gaidash Oct 18 '23 at 14:33
  • @ТymaGaidash I stop to make answer/question but I still comment .Anyway see $$f(x)=e^{-x}/(1-x),(f(f(x+1)))^{1/6},x>0$$ and compare with the Stirling approximation with $e^{1/(12x)}$ which divide the $x!$ .Ramanujan is here and it's strange. – Miss and Mister cassoulet char Jan 19 '24 at 15:07
  • @DesmosTutu How would this apply to the sum in the question? – Тyma Gaidash Jan 19 '24 at 22:13
  • Dear Tyma forgot that but see and compare https://www.wolframalpha.com/input?i=integral+%282-gamma%28x%2C1%29%29e%5E%28-x%29x%5E%283%2F4%29 with my bountied question add terms series expansion and your Meijer G – Miss and Mister cassoulet char Jan 20 '24 at 18:15

1 Answers1

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I cannot see this one included above because it uses a much simpler function than those above, but it might be equivalent to one of them in the end. We start from the exponential generating function for subfactorial

$$E(x)=\frac{e^{-x}}{1-x}$$

We have

$$E(x)=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}!n\frac{x^n}{n!}$$

Now what is good about this is that differentiation gives us easily

$$E^{(n)}(0)=!n$$

or

$$\sum\limits_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac1{!n}=\sum\limits_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac1{E^{(n)}(0)}$$

There are many tools for dealing with differentials. As an example, we can use, from complicated, yet precise, the Lanczos derivatives formula

$$E^{(n)}(0)=\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{(2n+1)!}{2^{n+1}n!}\frac1{h^{n+1}}\int_{-h}^h E(x)P_n(\frac{x}{h})\mathrm dx$$

Lanczos’ generalized derivative for higher orders (10)

where $P_n(x)$ is a Legendre polynomial, which leads to a direct connection to the exponential integral, but equally Cauchy formula, to the simpler central difference formulas, etc. still noting that $E^{(n)}(0)$ is an integer, which gives a clear error margin necessary for each calculation.

Due to the reciprocal involved, none of the attempted resolutions leads to any true simplification of the expression. However, out of all the given options, this seems like the simplest one.

Notice that if we define the difference operator in this manner

$$\frac{1}{f^{(n)}(x)}=\frac{1}{\frac{d^n}{dx^n}f(x)}=\frac{1}{D^n}f$$

(alike $\frac1{D}\sin(x)=\frac1{\sin'(x)}=\frac1{\cos(x)}$)

we can write a very short symbolical expression

$$\sum\limits_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac1{!n}=\frac1{D(D-1)}E(0)$$

which is a shorthand symbolical notation for operators sum

$$(\frac1{D(D-1)})f=(\sum\limits_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac1{D^n})f$$

  • Applying the Lanczos formula leaves one with $\sum\frac 1{\lim (\dots)\int_{-h}^hE(x)P_n(\frac xh)dx}$. Are you sure there is no way to simplify the reciprocal of the integral? – Тyma Gaidash Nov 21 '23 at 14:34
  • @ТymaGaidash It would be strange for me to say that I am sure, but plugging in Legendre polynomial does not help at all. The correct path to simplify this is more to find a good replacement for Legendre (since it is one of the possible choices) that would play well with the given function $E(x)$. I believe it will take some months to find something down that line as even this one with all ingredients is a bit fresh on its own. There is a room for editing if I find anything. I am quite certain it must be an investigation on its own. –  Nov 21 '23 at 16:05
  • For those unfamiliar with the reciprocal differential operator $\frac1D$, maybe you can give some numerical proof of the result? – Тyma Gaidash Nov 22 '23 at 00:13
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    @ТymaGaidash I added the meaning behind the expression. It is just a typical shorthand notation but still nice one to compare with other possible operator expressions. –  Nov 22 '23 at 10:57