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I have been trying to find an interesting constant over the domain of the infinite tetration of x and have just almost figured out the area with a non integral infinite sum representation. Just one constant is in my way. D denotes the domain. This question is different from this one as it has the full domain such that the imaginary part is $0$ and not for a single point. Here is a demo of my expansion. Here is my source for the product logarithm/W-Lambert function series. My inspiration for the series is here.

Finally here is a graph of the constant. My work is as follows. I used a bit of software to help with the evaluation at the end. Here is data about the generalized incomplete gamma function used here.

enter image description here

$$ \mathrm{G=\int_D x^{x^{x^…}}dx=\int_D {^\infty x}\, dx=\int_D-\frac{W(-ln(x))}{ln(x)}dx= 1.265188689361227081430914184615901039501069191363542653701819999950085943915822836313002058708863484…\implies G+\int_0^{\sqrt[-e]e }\frac {W(-ln(x))}{ln(x)}dx= \int_{\sqrt[-e]e}^{\sqrt[e]e}\frac {W(-ln(x))}{ln(x)}dx= \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{n^{n-1}}{n!} \int_{\sqrt[-e]e}^{\sqrt[e]e} ln^{n-1}(x)dx= \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-n)^{n-1}}{n!}Γ\left(n,-\frac 1e,\frac 1e\right)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-n)^{n-1}}{n}Q\left(n,-\frac 1e, \frac 1e\right)= 0.886369135921835965080748…=G-0.378819553439391116350165…} $$

I have also found the amazing result of being able to integrate the $\mathrm{x^{th}}$ root of x using a theorem on the integral of an inverse function. Here is my work.

$$\mathrm{\int_{eW\left(\frac 1e\right)}^e \left(x^\frac 1x=\sqrt[x]x\right)dx+\int_{e^{-\frac 1e}}^{e^\frac 1e} {^\infty x}\,dx=e^{1+\frac1e}-e^{1-\frac1e} W\left(\frac 1e\right)=e^{1-\frac1e}\left(e^\frac2e-W\left(\frac 1e\right)\right)=e^{1+\frac1e}\left(1-e^{-\frac2e}W\left(\frac 1e\right)\right)\implies \int_{eW\left(\frac 1e\right)}^e x^\frac 1xdx= e^{1+\frac1e}-e^{1-\frac1e} W\left(\frac 1e\right)-\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-n)^{n-1}}{n}Q\left(n,-\frac 1e, \frac 1e\right)}$$

In order to find an exact form of G, I need to find the following. The other form uses the following identity here: $$\mathrm{I= \int_0^ {e^{-\frac 1e}} x^{x^{x^…}}dx=\int_0^{e^{-\frac 1e}} {^\infty x}\, dx=\int_0^ {e^{-\frac 1e}} -\frac{W(-ln(x))}{ln(x)}dx=e^{1-\frac1e}W\left(\frac1e\right)-\int_0^ {eW\left(\frac1e\right)} \sqrt[x]x dx=0.378819553439391116350165…}$$

The previous result is proof of the following. I guess this link here is not accurate anymore. I will give an example if wanted of this result. Using another Wikipedia theorem proves that: $$\mathrm{\int x^{\frac1x}dx=x^{\frac1x+1}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^nn^{n-2} Q\left(n,-\frac{ln(x)}{x}\right)+C,eW\left(\frac1e\right)\le x\le e}$$

more info on this result

I found this series based on this answer from @mathphile which does not give the right result as the n=0 term diverges and even trying to use the lower integration bound as $e^{-e}$ still gives the wrong result. The user’s answer would have cracked the question.

How do I evaluate this integral? A closed form is wanted, but optional. Please give me any hints as the already used series expansion for this other integral is not in the interval of convergence. This is the main constant that I need to find. Also, please correct me and give me feedback!

Note:

These Taylor series expansions were found:

Taylor Series

Unfortunately, it seems like there may be uneven radiuses of convergence which may make us need to have multiple series. Also see nth derivative of xth root of x at x=1 OEIS which has an actual formula. We are so close to the answer.

Тyma Gaidash
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    How about expanding $\sqrt[x]x$ as $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} \frac{\ln^n(x)}{x^n} $, exchanging sum and integral and expressing $\int_0^{e\text{W}(1/e)} \frac{\ln^n(x)}{x^n} dx $ in terms of the incomplete gamma function? – Vishu Jun 12 '21 at 14:58
  • @Tavish please see this. If I remember correctly, then this actually diverges using this Youtuber’s result at the end of the video. Anyways, go ahead and try it and see if it converges to the correct constant. – Тyma Gaidash Jun 12 '21 at 17:27
  • Hmm, yes. You can’t interchange summation and integral, as each integral for $n\ge 1$ diverges. – Vishu Jun 12 '21 at 18:12
  • Yes, but there still is divergence. No other ideas yet. – Vishu Jun 12 '21 at 20:00
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    But for instance this integral diverges. And can you elaborate on what you mean by the wrong value of $I$? – Vishu Jun 13 '21 at 12:48
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    @Tavish Infinite tetration area answer. Since you were part of the bounty before, maybe the new answer will be of interest. Do you have any feedback? – Тyma Gaidash Aug 29 '21 at 21:56
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    Your approach is very nice. However, I have no further feedback/ I don’t know how to tackle the last integral. – Vishu Aug 30 '21 at 12:23
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    @Tyma Gaidash. I am trying to write an answer but I am stuck. So I am here to ask for your help. In your answer in the last integral, if we substitute $u=\frac{1}{x}$, we will have $\int\frac{1}{u^2}u^{-u}du$. Now using the infinite series of $u^{-u}$ we will have $u^{n-2}\ln^n(u)$ inside the sum and the integral. Since $n$ starts with $0$, we have to separate $n=1$ case form the integral which would produce the integral $\int_{e}^{\infty}\frac{\ln(u)}{u}du$ which diverges. I would like to hear your advice. – Rounak Sarkar Sep 23 '21 at 16:46
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    @RounakSarkar You can always try using A008405 for a taylor series, but I just cannot verify the radius of convergence for it. For your actual question: the problem is that we have the $\frac 1{u^2}$ which causes convergence problems like if you tried doing the series of $\sqrt[x] x$. There should be another method to integrate like inverse theorem, Integral of Inverse function or something else clever. Maybe try the inverse of $u^{-u}$? – Тyma Gaidash Sep 23 '21 at 17:01
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    @Tyma Gaidash. I tries the inverse function integral approach. It leads to a divergent limit. I will put the limit in the next comment, I haven't yet tried the lagrange inversion theorem approach, I am quite sure that it would work but the problem is that the sum will have extremely complicated coefficients which I hate very much. But I think we have no choice. – Rounak Sarkar Sep 24 '21 at 09:31
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    $\textstyle\displaystyle{\lim_{x\rightarrow 0^+}\left[x^{1+\frac{1}{x}}+\frac{1}{2}W\left(-\frac{\ln(x)}{x}\right)\left(W\left(-\frac{\ln(x)}{x}\right)+2\right)-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!n^n}\left(\Gamma\left(n+1,-nW\left(-\frac{\ln(x)}{x}\right)\right)-\frac{1}{n}\Gamma\left(n+2,-W\left(-\frac{\ln(x)}{x}\right)\right)\right)\right]}$. I will try the lagrange inversion theorem next time. – Rounak Sarkar Sep 24 '21 at 09:31
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    @Tyma Gaidash. I have written an answer please see it. – Rounak Sarkar Sep 24 '21 at 11:43
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    @RounakSarkar Here is the G* result which is about $1.244…$ – Тyma Gaidash Sep 26 '21 at 16:36
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    @StarAlpha Thanks for the bounty! – Тyma Gaidash Oct 05 '21 at 22:11
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    @Tyma Gaidash. I was actually thinking about giving it to Rounak Sarkar for his $G^{*}$ result. – Star Alpha Oct 06 '21 at 12:24
  • @StarAlpha If you go to the comments, I have congratulated them already. – Тyma Gaidash Oct 06 '21 at 12:27

2 Answers2

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Note that the following method may not work for $0\le x\le e^{-e}$, but should work for convergence interval of the infinite tetration function. This interval is ${e^{-e}}\le x\le {\sqrt[e]e}, \frac1e\le y\le e$:

enter image description here

Although there exist a few techniques for finding a series representation, or related method, to evaluate, this one seems easiest. Graphical visualization of the result. Unfortunately, the integral from 0 to $e^{-e}$ seems to be out of the interval of convergence which is the lower convergence bound of the infinite tetration function. Here is the area under the converging original infinite tetration of x. Let this constant be denoted as $\mathrm G^*$. This leaves the only integral to be found being the following which uses the inverse function theorem mentioned in the question:

$$\mathrm{\int_{e^{-e}}^{\sqrt[-e]e}\,^\infty x\,dx=e^{1-\frac1e}W\left(\frac 1e\right)-e^{-1-e}-\int_{\frac1e}^{e W\left(\frac 1e\right)}\sqrt[x]x\, dx}$$

Let the focus be on the main integral for simplicity. The series representation uses nth derivative formulas from A008405 from the OEIS and $\mathrm{S_{x}^{(y)}}$ as the Stirling Numbers of the First Kind:

$$\mathrm{\int_{\frac1e}^{e W\left(\frac 1e\right)}\sqrt[x]x\, dx= \int_{\frac1e}^{e W\left(\frac 1e\right)}\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{\frac{d^n}{dx^n}\left(x^\frac1x\right)_{x=1}}{n!}(x-1)^n\,dx= \sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{1}{n!}\sum_{m=0}^n S^{(m)}_n\sum_{k=0}^m (-k)^{m-k}\binom mk \int_{\frac1e}^{e W\left(\frac 1e\right)}(x-1)^n\,dx= \sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{1}{(n+1)!}\sum_{m=0}^n S^{(m)}_n\sum_{k=0}^m (-k)^{m-k}\binom mk \left[\left(e W\left(\frac 1e\right)-1\right)^{n+1}-\left(\frac1e-1\right)^{n+1}\right]= \left(1-\frac1e\right)\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{1}{(n+1)!}\sum_{m=0}^n S^{(m)}_n\sum_{k=0}^m (-1)^{k+m+n}k^{m-k}\binom mk \left(1-\frac1e\right)^n-\left(1-eW\left(\frac1e\right)\right)\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{1}{(n+1)!}\sum_{m=0}^n S^{(m)}_n\sum_{k=0}^m (-1)^{k+m+n}k^{m-k}\binom mk \left(1-eW\left(\frac1e\right)\right)^n}=.35776216…$$

Note that the sum can be simplified by splitting it, manipulating the alternating part of the sum, and using special functions. Also note that the interval of convergence may be larger for the OEIS expansion. This makes it possible to split the original integral, for example, from $\mathrm{[e^{-e},1]\ to\ [1,e]}$ to get a simpler answer for the area under the infinite tetration function than the answer here. The technique would use the 2 different sum representations seen in this question and answer.

Putting this all together gives the area under the infinite tetration curve, the version not defined by the W-Lambert function, as:

$$\mathrm{G^*=\int_{e^{-e}}^{e^{-\frac1e}}\,^\infty x\,dx+ \int_{e^{-\frac1e}}^{e^{\frac1e}}\,^\infty x\,dx=\int_{e^{-e}}^{e^{\frac1e}} x^{x^…} dx= e^{1-\frac1e}W\left(\frac 1e\right)-e^{-e-1}-\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left[\frac{\left[\left(e W\left(\frac 1e\right)-1\right)^n-\left(\frac1e-1\right)^n\right]}{n!}\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} S^{(m)}_{n-1}\sum_{k=0}^m (-k)^{m-k}\binom mk +\frac{(-n)^{n-1}}{n}Q\left(n,-\frac 1e, \frac 1e\right)\right]= e^{1-\frac1e}W\left(\frac 1e\right)-e^{-1-e}-\sum_{n=1}^\infty \left[\frac{1}{n!}\left(\left[\left(e W\left(\frac 1e\right)-1\right)^n-\left(\frac1e-1\right)^n\right]\left(\frac{d^{n-1}}{dx^{n-1}}x^\frac1x\right)_{x=1}+(-n)^{n-1}Γ\left(n,-\frac 1e, \frac 1e\right)\right)\right]= 1.244131300651…}$$

Using similar techniques one can split the integral on the aforementioned interval of $[e^{-e},1] ∪ [1,e] $ as these match the convergence intervals. It uses the Lower Regularized Incomplete Gamma function denoted P(a,z):

$$\mathrm{G^*=1-e^{-e-1}+\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{\left(\frac{d^n}{dx^n} x^\frac1x\right)_{x=1}\left(\frac1e-1\right)^{n+1}}{n!}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^n n^{n-2}Q\left(n,-\frac1e,0\right)= 1-e^{-e-1}-\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^n\left[n^{n-2}P\left(n,-\frac1e\right)-\sum_{m=0}^{n-1}\sum_{k=0}^m \binom mk\frac{S_{n-1}^{(m)} \left(1-\frac1e\right)^n}{ (-k)^{k-m} n!}\right]= 1.244131300651437208…}$$

As the main sum has been partly shown to converge, our next goal is to find $$\mathrm{-\int_0^{e^{-e}}\frac{W(-ln(x))}{ln(x))} =e^{-e-1}-\int_0^{\frac 1e} x^\frac1x dx=.02105…}$$ in order to complete the integral in the question. However, that is for another time. Simplification would be appreciated. Please correct me and give me feedback!

Тyma Gaidash
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We can have another approach for your constant $G^{*}$ in your answer:-

$\textstyle\displaystyle{-\int\frac{W(-\ln(x))}{\ln(x)}dx}$

Substitute, $u=-\ln(x)$ then $dx=-e^{-u}du$, so

$\textstyle\displaystyle{-\int\frac{W(u)}{u}e^{-u}du}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=-\int\frac{W(u)}{u}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^nu^n}{n!}du}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=-\int\frac{W(u)}{u}du-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n!}\int u^{n-1}W(u)du}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=-\frac{1}{2}W(u)(W(u)+2)-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n!}\int u^{n-1}W(u)du}$

Let's do the integral in the sum first,

$\textstyle\displaystyle{\int u^{n-1}W(u)du}$

Substitute, $v=W(u)$ then $du=(v+1)e^vdv$. So,

$\textstyle\displaystyle{\int v^ne^{nv}(v+1)dv}$ $\textstyle\displaystyle{=\int v^{n+1}e^{nv}dv+\int v^ne^{nv}dv}$

Finally substitute $t=-nv$ then $dv=-\frac{1}{n}dt$, so

$\textstyle\displaystyle{\frac{(-1)^{n}}{n^{n+2}}\int t^{n+1}e^{-t}dt+\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^{n+1}}\int t^ne^{-t}dt}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=\frac{(-1)^{n+1}\Gamma(n+2,t)}{n^{n+2}}+\frac{(-1)^{n}\Gamma(n+1,t)}{n^{n+1}}}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=\frac{(-1)^n}{n^{n+1}}\left(\Gamma(n+1,-nW(u))-\frac{1}{n}\Gamma(n+2,-nW(u))\right)}$

So finally,

$\textstyle\displaystyle{-\int\frac{W(u)}{u}e^{-u}du}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=-\frac{1}{2}W(u)(W(u)+2)-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!n^{n+1}}\left(\Gamma(n+1,-nW(u))-\frac{1}{n}\Gamma(n+2,-nW(u))\right)}$

Then the definite integral would be-

$\textstyle\displaystyle{-\int_{e^{-e}}^{e^\frac{1}{e}}\frac{W(-\ln(x))}{\ln(x)}dx}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=\bigg[-\frac{1}{2}W(-\ln(x))(W(-\ln(x))+2)-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!n^{n+1}}\left(\Gamma(n+1,-nW(-\ln(x)))-\frac{1}{n}\Gamma(n+2,-nW(-\ln(x)))\right)\bigg]_{e^{-e}}^{e^\frac{1}{e}}}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{G^{*}=2+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!n^{n+1}}\left(\frac{1}{n}\Gamma(n+2,n)-\Gamma(n+1,n)\right)+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!n^{n+1}}\left(\Gamma(n+1,-n)-\frac{1}{n}\Gamma(n+2,-n)\right)}$

We can simplify this using the generalized incomplete function-

$\Gamma(x,y)-\Gamma(x,z)=\Gamma(x,y,z)$

And then using the recurrence relation which can be easily obtained through integration by parts-

$\Gamma(a,b,c)$

$=b^{a-1}e^{-b}-c^{a-1}e^{-c}+(a-1)\Gamma(a-1,b,c)$

So,

$\textstyle\displaystyle{G^{*}=2-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!n^{n+1}}\left(\frac{1}{n}\Gamma(n+2,-n,n)-\Gamma(n+1,-n,n)\right)}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=2-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!n^{n+1}}\left((-1)^{n+1}n^ne^n-n^ne^{-n}+\frac{1}{n}\Gamma(n+1,-n,n)\right)}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=2-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(-\frac{e^{-n}}{n!n}-\frac{(-e)^n}{n!n}+\frac{1}{n!n^{n+2}}\Gamma(n+1,-n,n)\right)}$

From here and here we can simplify even further-

$\textstyle\displaystyle{G^{*}=\int_{e^{-e}}^{e^\frac{1}{e}}{^{\infty}x}dx}$

$\boxed{\textstyle\displaystyle{G^{*}=2-2\gamma+\operatorname{Ei}(-e)+\operatorname{Ei}\left(\frac{1}{e}\right)-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\operatorname{Q}(n+1,-n,n)}{n^{n+2}}}}$

I can't simplify more than this.



For the last integral in your answer, I think I can give you a sum using the lagrange inversion theorem-

Let, $f(x)=x^\frac{1}{x}$

Then,

$\textstyle\displaystyle{\begin{align}f^{-1}(x)&=e^{-W(-\ln(x))}\\&=-\frac{W(-\ln(x))}{\ln(x)}\end{align}}$

Using the Lagrange Inversion theorem we have

$\textstyle\displaystyle{x^\frac{1}{x}=1+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}f_n\frac{(x-1)^n}{n!}}$

Where, $\textstyle\displaystyle{f_n=\lim_{h\rightarrow 1}\frac{d^{n-1}}{dh^{n-1}}\left[\left(\frac{h-1}{e^{-W(-\ln(h))}-1}\right)^n\right]}$

Here I have taken $a=1$

By the ratio test we have the radius of convergence for the sum-

$\textstyle\displaystyle{\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left|\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\right|}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left|\frac{f_{n+1}\frac{(u-1)^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}}{f_n\frac{(u-1)^n}{n!}}\right|}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=|u-1|\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left|\frac{f_{n+1}}{(n+1)f_n}\right|<1}$

$\implies\textstyle\displaystyle{|u-1|<\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left|\frac{(n+1)f_n}{f_{n+1}}\right|}$

I don't really know how to calculate $f_n$ cause wolfram alpha doesn't give me an answer when $n>3$. So unless I have an easily manageable formula for $f_n$, I don't know what the limit is, so I would ask for help in that.

So, assuming that the bounds of the integral are within the radius of convergence,

$\textstyle\displaystyle{\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{e}}x^\frac{1}{x}dx}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{e}}\left(1+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}f_n\frac{(x-1)^n}{n!}\right)dx}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{e}}dx+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{f_n}{n!}\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{e}}(x-1)^ndx}$

$=\boxed{\textstyle\displaystyle{\frac{1}{e}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{n}f_n}{(n+1)!}\left(1-\left(1-\frac{1}{e}\right)^{n+1}\right)}}$

$\{f_n\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$

$=\{1,-2,3,\dots\}$

If I am able derive more about $f_n$ then I will add it to the answer.



Finally if your derivation in the answer is correct then,

$\textstyle\displaystyle{G=G^{*}-\int_{0}^{e^{-e}}\frac{\operatorname{W}(-\ln(x))}{\ln(x)}dx}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=e^{-1-e}+G^{*}-\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{e}}x^\frac{1}{x}dx}$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{=2-2\gamma+e^{-1-e}-\frac{1}{e}+\operatorname{Ei}(-e)+\operatorname{Ei}\left(\frac{1}{e}\right)-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\operatorname{Q}(n+1,-n,n)}{n^{n+2}}-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^nf_n}{(n+1)!}\left(1-\left(1-\frac{1}{e}\right)^{n+1}\right)}$

Which looks really messy but that's all I can give you for now.

To be honest I prefer the constant $G^{*}$ better than $G$.

$\text{Conclusion:-}$

$\boxed{\textstyle\displaystyle{G=2-2\gamma+e^{-1-e}-\frac{1}{e}+\operatorname{Ei}(-e)+\operatorname{Ei}\left(\frac{1}{e}\right)-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\operatorname{Q}(n+1,-n,n)}{n^{n+2}}-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^nf_n}{(n+1)!}\left(1-\left(1-\frac{1}{e}\right)^{n+1}\right)}}$

Where,

$\textstyle\displaystyle{f_n=\lim_{h\rightarrow 1}\frac{d^{n-1}}{dh^{n-1}}\left[\left(\frac{h-1}{e^{-W(-\ln(h))}-1}\right)^n\right]}$

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    The goal would be to merge both answers to finally get $$\int_0^{e^{\frac1e}} x^{x^…}dx$$, but I would first need to know the interval of convergence of your general indefinite integral so we can determine if the formula can be used on all of $0\le x\le e^{\frac1e} $. If so, then we can possibly use your integral by itself to find the entire area. At the very least, you need to have the sum formula work on $0<x<\frac1e$. – Тyma Gaidash Sep 24 '21 at 11:50
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    Your sum for $\int_{e^{-e}}^{e^\frac1e } x^{x^…}dx=1.24413…dx$ gives $2.27071$. Check the link. Also note that Г(x,y,z)=Г(x,y)-Г(x,z) – Тyma Gaidash Sep 24 '21 at 12:29
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    @Tyma Gaidash. I can't really find any mistakes in the derivation. Have you found any?? – Rounak Sarkar Sep 24 '21 at 13:04
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    There is no error, for me, in this particular sum. All I can think of is the radius of convergence. What is it? – Тyma Gaidash Sep 24 '21 at 13:21
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    @Tyma Gaidash. My common sense tells me that there shouldn't be a finite radius of convergence for the first sum because I derived the sum using the series representation of $e^{-u}$ whose radius of convergence is infinite. So I am really confused. By the way you can use "\unicode{x22F0}" to represent $\unicode{x22F0}$ – Rounak Sarkar Sep 24 '21 at 13:43
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    @Tyma Gaidash. There is something called the riemann rearrangement theorem, did that effect the input in wolfram alpha somehow? – Rounak Sarkar Sep 24 '21 at 13:49
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    I guess the order I typed it into Wolfram Alpha may have changed the value. Let me put in the series exactly like in the answer. Unrelated:Also see detextify for more MathJax – Тyma Gaidash Sep 24 '21 at 13:52
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    Try to sum these together: 2+first sum≈-1.2736…+second sum≈1.54437…. Thanks for your time. I get the same $2.2707… $ value. I am not sure, but I will accept your answer for now. Maybe you could do a bit more investigation if you have the time? Also a few $f_n$ terms may help find a pattern, I can help if needed, – Тyma Gaidash Sep 24 '21 at 13:57
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    @Tyma Gaidash. ${f_n}_{n=1}^{\infty}={1,-2,3,\dots}$ that's all I have for now. – Rounak Sarkar Sep 24 '21 at 14:23
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    You actually found the area under the Wikipedia infinite tetration. Your result is much simpler than mine; this is G*. “G” is weirdly defined as the area, using the lambert function definition, from $0$ to $e^\frac 1e$. The infinite tetration does not converge for $0\le x<e^{-e}$ hence the bounds. Could you please now complete the problem and find the area from $0$ to $\sqrt[e] e$? There should be a limit as x approaches $0$. It is also possible to simplify a bit by combining the sums. – Тyma Gaidash Sep 26 '21 at 16:38
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    @Tyma Gaidash. We can actually simplify the sum using the generalized incomplete gamma function as you suggested. I will edit to add that. By the way, you may remember that I had put a really complicated divergent limit in a comment under your question. The antiderivative my approach produces is unable to take 0 as an input or even as a limit for that matter, so we have to do a different approach. – Rounak Sarkar Sep 26 '21 at 17:21
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    Sorry, I missed this. You do not have complete the result, but it would be nice to see. Note there also exists the Generalized Regularized gamma function which I used. It is also optional. $$Q(a,b,c)\mathop=^\text{def} \frac{Γ(a,b)}{Γ(a)}-\frac{Γ(a,c)}{Γ(b)}$$ It exists to define $$\frac{1}{Γ(a)}\int_b^c e^{-t} t^{a+1}dt$$ for the “more general” integral. – Тyma Gaidash Sep 26 '21 at 17:41
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    I checked your final $1.2441…$ answer and it works. Now you really deserve the checkmark, but are you completely sure about the radius of convergence for the $f_n$ based sum? – Тyma Gaidash Sep 27 '21 at 18:53
  • Congratulations on the rewarded answer! – Тyma Gaidash Oct 06 '21 at 00:45
  • @Tyma Gaidash. What? – Rounak Sarkar Oct 06 '21 at 12:49
  • @Tyma Gaidash. Hey I forgot to ask. Which state do you live in? – Rounak Sarkar Oct 06 '21 at 13:00
  • See the profile, I live in PA and the bounty for the question “to reward existing answer”. Also wouldn’t it be “$G=G^*+\int_0^\frac 1e \frac{W(-lnx)}{-lnx}dx$” – Тyma Gaidash Oct 06 '21 at 13:32
  • @Tyma Gaidash. But in your answer. You have written the bound as $e^{-e}$ – Rounak Sarkar Oct 06 '21 at 13:45
  • @Tyma Gaidash. Do you have any idea about $f_n$? Cause I am loosing sleep over it – Rounak Sarkar Oct 06 '21 at 13:48
  • @Tyma Gaidash. The subtraction isn't a problem. Notice that in the expression you gave, there is a negative sign in the denominator while in my expression the negative sign is in the front. I think I should ask Steven Clark. – Rounak Sarkar Oct 06 '21 at 13:59
  • Here is a possible tool you can use to find $f_n$, but it is unstable. – Тyma Gaidash Oct 06 '21 at 14:17