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First of all to follows we remember some elementary definitions and results about manifolds.

Definition

A function $f$ defined in a subset $S$ of $\Bbb R^k$ is said of class $C^r$ if it can be extended to a function $\phi$ (said $C^r$-extension) that is of class $C^r$ in a open neighborhood of $S$.

Lemma

If $f$ is a function defined in a subset $S$ of $\Bbb R^n$ such that for any $x\in S$ there exist a function $f_x$ defined in a neighborhood of $x$ that is of class $C^r$ and compatible with $f$ on $U_x\cap S$ then $f$ is of class $C^r$.

Lemma

If $U$ is an open set of $H^n_k:=\Bbb R^{n-k}\times[0,+\infty)^k$ for any $k\le n$ then the derivatives of two different extensions $\phi$ and $\varphi$ of a $C^r$-function $f$ agree in $U$.

Definition

A $k$-manifold with boundary/corners in $\Bbb R^n$ of calss $C^r$ is a subspace $M$ of $\Bbb R^n$ whose points have a neighborhood $V$ in $M$ that is the immage of a homeomorphism $\phi$ of calss $C^r$ defined an open set $U$ of $\Bbb R^k$ or of $H^k_1/H^k_m$ and whose derivative has rank $k$.

So now let be $M$ a $(n-1)$-manifold with boundary of class $C^r$ in $\Bbb R^n$ and thus let be $\gamma$ a injective curve defined in the unit interval $I:=[0,1]$ such that $\gamma(0)=0$ and such that the unit tangent vector not lies -for each $t\in I$- to the tangent space at any point of $M$. So we call cylindroid $C$ of trajectory $\gamma$ and of section $M$ the set $$ C:=\bigcup_{t\in I}\big(M+\gamma(t)\big) $$ that is obtained moving along $\gamma$ the points of $M$. Click here to see an example. So if $\xi\in C$ then there exist a coordinate patch $\alpha:U\rightarrow V$ and $t\in I$ such that $$ \xi=\alpha(x)+\gamma(t) $$ for any $x\in U$ and thus let be $\phi$ the function from $U\times I$ to $\Bbb R^n$ defined through the equation $$ \phi(x,t):=\alpha(x)+\gamma(t) $$ for any $(x,t)\in U\times I$ and then we prove that any restriction of this function is a coordinate patch about $\xi$. So we observe that the immage of $\phi$ is open in $C$: indeed the immage $V$ of $\alpha$ is an open set of $M$ so that there exist an open set $W$ of $\Bbb R^n$ whose intersection with $M$ is $V$ and so remembering that the translation is a bijection we observe that $$ \phi[U\times I]=\bigcup_{t\in I}\big(V+\gamma(t)\big)=\bigcup_{t\in I}\Big((W\cap M)+\gamma(t)\Big)=\bigcup_{t\in I}\Big(\big(W+\gamma(t)\big)\cap\big(M+\gamma(t)\big)\Big)=\\ \Biggl(\bigcup_{t\in I}\big(W+\gamma(t)\big)\Biggl)\cap\Biggl(\bigcup_{t\in I}\big(M\cap\gamma(t)\big)\Biggl)=\Biggl(\bigcup_{t\in I}\big(W+\gamma(t)\big)\Biggl)\cap C $$ and thus we conclude that the immage of $\phi$ is open in $C$ because the translations are a homeomorphism and thus $W+\gamma(t)$ is open for each $t\in I$. Now if $\overset{°}M$ and $\partial M$ are the sets of the interior and boundary points of $M$ then we observe that $C$ is union of the sets $$ \bigcup_{t\in\text{int}\, I}\big(\overset{°}M+\gamma(t)\big)\,\,\,\text{and}\,\,\,\bigcup_{t\in\text{bd}\, I}\big(\overset{°}M+\gamma(t)\big)\,\,\,\text{and}\,\,\,\bigcup_{t\in I}\big(\partial M+\gamma(t)\big) $$ so that we analyse separately the case where $\xi$ is an element of the first set and the case where $\xi$ is an element of the second or either of the third: in particular this means to analyse separately the case where the set $ U $ is open in $ \Bbb R^{n-1} $ and $ t $ is an element of $ \text{int} \, I $ and the case where this is not and so just this is what we will do to follows -clearly this can be done independentely from the definition of the three mentioned sets nevertheless we decided to define them because we thought it makes more clear the following argumentetions, that's all. In particular in the example posted above these sets are respectively the invisible part, the red part, the green and balck parts. So first of all we observe that if $\xi$ is an element of the first set then $\alpha$ is a coordinate patch of $M$ defined in an open set $U$ of $\Bbb R^{n-1}$ and so the map $\phi$ defined above is a diffeomorphism in a neighborhood at any point of $U\times\text{int}\,I$ where is contained $\phi^{-1}(\xi)$, because if the unit tangent vector of $\gamma$ not lies to the tangent space at any point of $M$ then the derivative of $\phi$ is an isomorphism and so the statement follows directely from the inverse function theorem. So we conclude that the set $$ \bigcup_{t\,\in\,\text{int}\,I}\big(\overset{°}M+\gamma(t)\big) $$ is a $n$-manifold without boundary. In particular in this way we proved that the invisible part of the linked example is a manifold without boundary. Now if $\xi$ is a not an element of the first set then the previous argumentations hold only with some efforts that we show to follow. So the functions $\alpha$ and $\gamma$ can be extended to two $C^r$-functions $\beta$ and $\psi$ defined in a open neighborhood of $U$ and $I$ respectively so that the function $\phi$ can be extended to a function $\varphi:=\beta+\psi$ defined in a open neighborhood of $U\times I$ and in particular at any point $(x,t)$ of $U\times I$ this function has not singular derivative so that by the inverse function theorem there exist a (rectangular) open neighborhood $W_x\times W_t$ where $\varphi$ is a diffeomorphism. Now the set $\varphi[W_x\times W_t]$ is open in $\Bbb R^n$ and it is not disjoint from $C$ -indeed $W_x\times W_t$ is not disjoint from $U\times I$ and $\varphi$ is compatible with $\phi$ in $U\times I$ and the immage of $\phi$ is contained in $C$- so that by the continuity of $\phi$ the set $$ \phi^{-1}[\varphi[W_x\times W_t]] $$ is (not empty and) open in $U\times I$ and contains $W_x\times W_t\cap U\times I$ where $\phi$ is a diffeomorphism. So if we prove that the immage of $W_x\times W_t\cap U\times I$ through $\phi$ is open in $C$ then we conclude that the restriction of $\phi$ to this set is a coordinate patch defined in a open set of $\Bbb R^{n-1}\times[0,+\infty)$ or in a open set of $\Bbb R^{n-2}\times[0,+\infty)^2$ if $U$ is open in $\Bbb R^{n-1}$ and $t$ is not an element of $\text{int}\, I$ or if $U$ is not open in $\Bbb R^{n-1}$ and $t$ is an element of $\text{int}\, I$ or either if $U$ is not open in $\Bbb R^{n-1}$ and $t$ is not an element of $\text{int}\, I$ respectively. So how do this? Could someone help me, please?

To follows some observations that I tried to use: naturally you are not constrained to read it if you do not desidre.

OBSERVATION

If the function $\phi$ was injective in $U\times I$ the statement follows immediately because in particular the function $\varphi$ would be injective in $W_x\times W_t\cup U\times I$ so that $$ \phi[W_x\times W_t\cap U\times I]=\varphi[W_x\times W_t\cap U\times I]=\varphi[W_x\times W_t]\cap\varphi[U\times I]=\\ \varphi[W_x\times W_t]\cap\phi[U\times I] $$ having remembered that $\varphi$ and $\phi$ are compatible in $U\times I$. So in particular we observe that the injectivity of $\phi$ follows immediately if the set $M+\gamma(t_0)$ and $M+\gamma(t_1)$ was disjoint for any $t_0,t_1\in I$ such that $t_0\neq t_1$ and in particular I tried to prove this using the injectivity of $\gamma$ that above I did not use. Moreover since $\alpha$ is a homeomorphism and since $W_x$ is open in $\Bbb R^{n-1}$ then $\alpha[W_x\cap U]$ is open in $M$ and so exist a open set $W$ of $\Bbb R^n$ whose intersection with $M$ is $\alpha[W_x\cap U]$ and thus implementing the argumentations used above it follows that $$ \phi[W_x\times W_t\cap U\times I]=...=\Biggl[\bigcup_{t\in W_t\cap I}\big(W+\gamma(t)\big)\Biggl]\cap\Biggl[\bigcup_{t\in W_t\cap I}\big(M+\gamma(t)\big)\Biggl] $$ so that if the set $\Biggl[\bigcup_{t\in W_t\cap I}\big(M+\gamma(t)\big)\Biggl]$ and $\Biggl[\bigcup_{t\in I\setminus W_t}\big(M+\gamma(t)\big)\Biggl]$ was disjoint then $\phi[W_x\times W_t\cap U\times I]$ was open in $C$ and this surely happens if the set $M+\gamma(t_0)$ and $M+\gamma(t_1)$ was disjoint for any $t_0,t_1\in I$ such that $t_0\neq t_1$.

  • I didn't check your entire post carefully, but don't we expect a cylindroid to be a manifold with boundary, diffeomorphic to $I \times M$ by your mapping $\phi$ and whose boundary is the union of $\gamma(0) + M$ and $\gamma(1) + M$? Or is that not what you're asking? – Andrew D. Hwang May 19 '21 at 16:38
  • No, I ask if a cylindroid is a $n$-manifold with corners, that is a set diffeomorphic to open sets of $\Bbb R^n$ or $\Bbb R^{n-h}\times[0,+\infty)^h$ for any $h\le n$. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 19 '21 at 16:41
  • Exempli gratia a (full) cube or a (full) cylinder are a $3$-manifold with corners the edges of the cube and the circumferences of the cylinder. Is this incorrect? – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 19 '21 at 16:43
  • My mistake: Your first sentence says $M$ is a manifold with boundary, which I mis-read "manifold". <> As you note, your cylindroid is diffeomorphic to $I \times M$, so yes, it is a manifold with corners. Your argument looks reasonable, though again I haven't checked in detail.... – Andrew D. Hwang May 19 '21 at 17:29
  • Okay. However could you say only if the implication $$f,\text{vector field defined in a open set $A$ with not singular derivative},Df,\text{ in $A$}\Rightarrow f,\text{injective in $A$}$$ could be applied to open sets of the $h$ not negative subspace $\Bbb R^{n-h}\times[0,+\infty)^h$? n particular I am interested that the implication holds for the cases $h=1,2$. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 20 '21 at 08:15
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    Not sure I understand the vector field question, but if $f(x, y) = (e^x\cos y, e^x\sin y)$ on the plane, for example, then $Df$ is non-singular everywhere but $f$ is not injective as a mapping, and restricting to a quadrant does not "repair" non-injectivity. Is there some other issue underlying the question, and/or is that not what you mean about $f$? – Andrew D. Hwang May 20 '21 at 12:51
  • Oh, yeah! I wrote badly: forgive my mistake. I wanted implement the following well know result. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 20 '21 at 13:17
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    Let $A$ be open in $\Bbb R^n$; let $f:A\rightarrow\Bbb R^n$ be of class $C^1$. If $Df(a)$ is not singular, then there exists an $\alpha>0$ such that the inequality $$|f(x_0)-f(x_1)|\ge\alpha|x_0-x_1|$$ holds for all $x_0,x_1$ in some open cube $C(a;\epsilon)$ centered at $a$. It follows that $f$ is one-to-one on this open cube. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 20 '21 at 13:17

1 Answers1

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The cylindroid C need not be a manifold with corners. Here's a sketch of a counterexample (different from the incorrect one I posted earlier). Forgive my crude drawings.

Begin with a surface in $\mathbb R^3$ that's diffeomorphic to a disk. Looking down on it from the positive $z$-axis, its projection on the $xy$-plane looks like this: enter image description here But in 3-d, it actually lies on the surface of a helicoid, so as you walk counterclockwise around the surface, you gradually rise one unit in the $z$-direction. The darkened point on the positive $x$-axis actually represents two points on the surface, with one of them $1$ unit above the other.

Now let $\gamma:[0,1]\to \mathbb R^3$ be the curve $\gamma(t) = (0,0,t)$. The cylindroid $C$ is thus obtained by taking this helicoidal surface and translating it directly upward one unit. The resulting solid figure looks roughly like this: enter image description here The red dot is the point where the original surface meets its translated version. There is no neighborhood of the red dot in $C$ that is homeomorphic to an open subset of $\mathbb R^3$ or of $H^3_k$ for any $k$.

ADDED: Assume for contradiction that $C$ is a manifold with corners. Since some points of $C$ have neighborhoods homeomorphic to open balls in $\mathbb R^3$, it must be $3$-dimensional by invariance of dimension. Our assumption implies that there is a (relative) neighborhood $U$ of the red point in $C$ and a homeomorphism $\varphi\colon U\to \widehat U$, where $\widehat U$ is an open subset of $\mathbb R^3$ or of $H^3_k$ for some $k$. By shrinking $U$ and $\widehat U$ if necessary, we can assume both are connected. Shrinking further, we can assume that $U$ is contained in the ball of radius $1/8$, say, around the red point.

Now let $q = \varphi(\text{red point})$. Then $\widehat U\smallsetminus\{q\}$ is connected, but $U\smallsetminus \{\text{red point}\}$ is disconnected. Since homeomorphisms preserve connectivity, this is a contradiction.

Jack Lee
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  • Hi professor, first of all I thanks you to have replied at my appel: thanks very much really. Unfortunately I do not understand one thing about the counterexample: in the question $M$ is a $(n-1)$-manfiold in $\Bbb R^n$ and in your counterexample it seems to me that it is $n=3$ but the dimension of $M$ is $(n-2)$ and thus consequentially I do not understand all other things too. So where is my mistake now? Could you illuminate me about, please? Excuse me for the confusion. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 23 '21 at 16:19
  • @AntonioMariaDiMauro: Sorry, I missed that part of your hypothesis. But the claim is still false. I'll edit my answer. – Jack Lee May 23 '21 at 16:29
  • Oh, okay: so I wait for the new counterexample. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 23 '21 at 16:35
  • @AntonioMariaDiMauro: I take it back -- the counterexample I had in mind doesn't work. I'll have to think about this some more. – Jack Lee May 23 '21 at 16:37
  • Okay: then I'll wait for the counterexample. In any case, I take this opportunity to ask you if the statement could be true if the sets $M + \gamma (t_1)$ and $M + \gamma (t_0)$ are disjoint for each $t_0, t_1 \ in I$ such that $t_0\neq t_1$. In fact, it seems to me that this always happens when $M$ is a planar (compact) surface (e.g. a circle or an ellipse) and $\gamma$ is a straight line orthogonal to the plane of $M$. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 23 '21 at 16:46
  • Moreover it has not matter if $C$ is not the disjoint union of the three set above indicated: in fact substantially I analyse separately the case where $U$ is open in $\Bbb R^{n-1}$ and $t$ is an element of $\text{int} I$ and the case where $U$ is not open in $\Bbb R^{n-1}$ or either $t$ is not an element of $\text{int} I$ and this seems to me independent of whether or not C is disjoint union of the three indicated sets. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 23 '21 at 17:35
  • Okay, I see. So substantially the cylindroid of your counterexample is not a manifold because at the red point is not defined a tangent space in the boundary, right? – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 26 '21 at 20:40
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    Well, it's even more fundamental than that -- it doesn't really have anything to do with tangent spaces or differentiation. The red point has no neighborhood that is homeomorphic to an open subset of $\mathbb R^3$ or $H^3_k$. One way to see it is that if $U$ is an open subset of any of those model spaces, then it remains connected if you remove a single point. But if $U$ is a small neighborhood of the red point and you remove the red point, then the rest of $U$ becomes disconnected. – Jack Lee May 26 '21 at 20:47
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    It doesn't really make sense to ask whether a set "has a tangent apace" unless you already know it's a manifold. – Jack Lee May 26 '21 at 20:47
  • Pheraps I understood: you want say that the immage of $U$ is disconnected because the red point not lies to it and so this really impossible since the immage of $U$ is homeomorphic to $U$, right? – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 26 '21 at 20:51
  • I didn't quite follow this comment. But I'll add a more careful version of the argument to my answer. – Jack Lee May 26 '21 at 20:54
  • Oh yeah, now it is clear! Thanks very much for your assistance: I am really grateful to you for your kindness, thanks yet. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro May 26 '21 at 21:09