Now we want to prove: $$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(n+\alpha)^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{(\sin \pi \alpha)^2}$$ $\alpha$ >0 and not an integer. According to poisson summation formula $$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}f(x+n)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\hat{f}(n)e^{2\pi inx}.$$ So, if we let $f(x)=\frac{1}{x^2}$, then $$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}f(x+n)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(n+x)^2}$$ Therefore, if we can prove that $$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\left(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2} e^{-2\pi inx}dx e^{2\pi inx}\right)=\frac{\pi^2}{(\sin \pi x)^2}$$ Then it will be done. But I don't know how to prove $$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\left(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2} e^{-2\pi inx}dx e^{2\pi inx}\right)=\frac{\pi^2}{(\sin \pi x)^2}$$ Who could give me some hints? Thanks!
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Interesing... we can square termwise. – Pedro Mar 11 '13 at 22:55
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Here is a related problem 1, related problem 2. – Mhenni Benghorbal Mar 11 '13 at 23:07
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@user39843: I found your question under my post. See here for the answer. – Mhenni Benghorbal Mar 13 '13 at 23:45
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@MhenniBenghorbal thx! It would be helpful. – user39843 Mar 18 '13 at 04:56
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Does this series converge uniformly ? – Fardad Pouran Dec 29 '15 at 19:05
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The proper technique is documented at MSE 112161 and at MSE 3056578.

Marko Riedel
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This one is better done with a rectangular contour aligned with half-integers (real and imaginary). – Marko Riedel Dec 30 '13 at 21:15