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I am interested in finding Example of twice differentiable function on $(0,\infty)$ $f(x)\to 0 , x\to \infty$ but $f'(x)$ not tends to 0 as $x$ goes to infinity.

I had already proved that in case of $f''(x)$ is bounded then we can show that above is not true. I tried to get some examples, but did not succeed. Any help will be appreciated!

Dan Doe
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    Oscillatory functions in general. $f(x)=\sin (x^2)/x$ is a nice example. – user254433 Nov 13 '18 at 09:44
  • How about $f(x) = \frac{\sin(x^2)}{x}$? We have $f'(x)=2 \cos(x^2) -\frac{\sin(x^2)}{x^2}$, so $\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)=0$, but $\lim_{x\to\infty}f'(x)$ does not exist. – molarmass Nov 13 '18 at 09:57

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The idea to approach a question like yours, is that $f$ must oscillate heavily as we approach the tail, but the amplitude must be steadily decreasing to zero. Essentially, try to make $f$ a product of two terms : one curbing the oscillation, ensuring the function goes to zero, and the other increasing the frequency of oscillation (keeping amplitude constant), ensuring the derivative goes to infinity.

For example, taking $\frac 1x$, which goes to infinity, and $\sin (x^2)$, which oscillates rapidly, satisfy these conditions (note that $\sin x$ also oscillates, but $\frac 1x$ doesn't just go to infinity : it also provides a dampening effect to oscillations, since its derivative is $x$ to a lower power. To counter this lower power, we need more rapid oscillations). You can check that $\frac 1x \sin(x^2)$ is a counterexample. So is $\frac 1x \sin x^3$.

For fun, try to come up with conditions on $f$ and $g$ so that $h(x) = f(x) \sin g(x)$ is a counterexample to your assertion.


As you have noted , $f''$ being bounded implies that if $f(x) \to 0$ then $f'(x) \to 0$ as $x \to \infty$. However, there is a more general condition, which is weaker than $f''$ being bounded. It is the uniform continuity of $f'$ : if $f'$ is assumed uniformly continuous, rather than differentiable with bounded derivative, then too it is true that it would converge to $0$.You can try this as an exercise.


Answer to the exercise

Known as Barbalat's lemma, is the statement that if $f$ is differentiable on $(a,\infty)$, continuous on $[a,\infty)$ , and $f'$ is uniformly continuous on $(a,\infty)$, then $\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) = a < \infty$ implies that $\lim_{x \to \infty} f'(x) = 0$. Note that we actually have $a= 0$, but the value of $a$ does not matter, because one may add to , or subtract a constant from $f$ to make the value of $\lim_{x \to \infty}f(x)$ change : the derivative removes constants, so it will not change.

We prove this by contradiction. Suppose that $\lim_{x\ to \infty} f'(x) \neq 0$.We negate the definition of limit equalling zero, to get : there exists $\epsilon > 0$, for all $r$ there exists $x > r$ such that $|f'(x)| > \epsilon$.

Now, take $r = 1,2,...$ in this statement, to get points $x_i$ at which $|f'| > \epsilon$. There will be infinitely many such points. This implies that either the set of points for which $f' < -\epsilon$, or the set of points for which $f' > \epsilon$,(or both) will be an infinite set. Without loss of generality, let us assume that $f'(x_i) > \epsilon$ for all $i$.

Now, we will see what happens if $f'$ is just continuous.

Since $f'$ is continuous at each $x_i$, there exists $\delta_i$ depending on $x_i$, such that $|y - x_i| < \delta_i$ implies $f'(y) > \epsilon$.

Now, what happens under uniform continuity?

Since $f'$ is uniformly continuous, there exists $\delta$ not depending on $x_i$, such that $|y - x_i| < \delta$ implies $f'(y) > \epsilon$.

Ok, so what extra is uniform continuity giving us? Not clear so far.

Consider the quantity $D_i = \int_{a}^{x_i + \delta} f' - \int_{a}^{x_i} f' = \int_{x_i}^{x_i + \delta} f'$. Since $f' > \epsilon$ on these intervals, we see that $D_i > \epsilon \delta$ for all $i$.

However, from the fundamental theorem of calculus, we know that $D_i = f(x_i + \delta) - f(x_i)$. Therefore, since $\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) = \alpha$, the limit of the RHS exists and equals zero. Consequently , $\lim_{i \to \infty} D_i = 0$. But this can't happen : $D_i > \epsilon \delta$, so it can't get closer than this to zero! Contradiction.

What happens if we change back to just continuity? The problem is that $D_i$ is now $\int_{x_i}^{x_i + \delta_i} f'$. The bound created is $D_i >\epsilon\delta_i$. Since $\delta_i$ is not fixed, this does not prevent $D_i$ from converging to zero! Which was the trick to producing the contradiction.

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    Thanks for giving me nice excercise. I had solved first but I had difficulty with weaker condition that f' is uniform continuous .can you give me some hint? – Curious student Nov 13 '18 at 10:15
  • Sure. Suppose for a contradiction to $\lim f' = 0$, that $f'$ is above $\epsilon$ for infinitely many points. This gives us infinitely many intervals in which $f'$ is greater than $\epsilon$ by continuity, and the sum of the lengths of these intervals is infinite, by uniform continuity. So the integral of $f'$ over the union of these intervals should be infinity, since $f'$ dominates the constant function $\epsilon$ on the union which has infinite intergal. But the integral of $f'$ over an interval is related to $f$, via the fundamental theorem of calculus. Find a contradiction. – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Nov 13 '18 at 10:24
  • If you are done, give me a reply. Else, ask me to edit the answer : this is the famous Barbalat lemma that you are now trying to prove, and it should get a good proof on the site. – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Nov 13 '18 at 11:07
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    Sir thanks. But I don't understand why uniform continuity implies sum of interval became infinite. I am thinking even continuity will give same. Please tell me where is I am missing – Curious student Nov 13 '18 at 15:16
  • I apologize, I thought wrong. I have added a proof of the lemma, but the approach is different. I have highlighted where uniform continuity has been used, though. – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Nov 13 '18 at 16:56