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Consider a real, differentiable function f with an oblique asymptote, i.e. $lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)-ax-b=0$. Does this imply that $lim_{x\to\infty} f'(x)=a?$

It makes intuitive sense, but coming up with a proof in terms of epsilon-delta definitions eludes me.

Is there a theorem on this, or a proof one of you could come up with?

Aqeel
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1 Answers1

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$\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}\frac{f(x)}{x} =0$. Hospital rule does't ask your question?

lib
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