GRE 9768 #60 on what appears to be Boolean rings:
Ian Coley's approach is to prove $(I)$ and $(I) \implies (II) \implies (III)$
- I think $(II) \implies (I)$. My attempt:
$$(s+t)^2=s^2+t^2 \iff s^2+st+ts+t^2=s^2+t^2 \iff st + ts = 0$$
By choosing $t=1$, we get $s+s=0$.
Is this flawed because actually rings don't necessarily contain $1$ even though Algebra by Michael Artin defines that they do?
What counterexamples does $(II) \implies (I)$ have if rings don't necessarily contain $1$ please? If none, then please prove $(II) \implies (I)$ for rings that don't necessarily contain $(1)$.
- Am I right to say that collecting all idempotent matrices in $\mathbb R^{n \times n}$ does not form a ring $R$ because if such collection were a ring, then it would be a Boolean ring and thus imply $A+A=0$ for all $A$ in $R$ which would imply $A=0$?