I just want to clarify one thing I was never really sure on.
First the question:
$$1 = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{e^x-1}{x} = \frac{\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} (e^x) -1}{\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} x}$$
is this valid?
I ask for two reasons:
1) because there are several rules that would make it seem wrong to do
2) If this is technically valid I can replace $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} (e^x)$ with $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} (1+x)$ (see [1] for explanation)
First
$$\lim_{x \rightarrow a} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \frac{\lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x)}{\lim_{x \rightarrow a} g(x)} \iff \lim_{x \rightarrow a} g(x) \ne 0$$
and
$$\lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x) = f(\lim_{x \rightarrow a} x) \iff \lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x) = f(a)$$
The second doesn't seem to be as much of an issue and I know it looks like I am answering my own question, but I am genuinely unsure of there is anyway to go about this without being forced to assume the limit (I don't want to use L'Hopital's rule, as it results in circular logic, neither proving or disproving the limit).
[1] $$\begin{align*}e &= \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} e = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} (1+x)^{1/x} \\ &\Rightarrow (\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} e)^{\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} x} = (\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} (1+x)^{1/x})^{\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} x} \\ &\Rightarrow \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}(e^x) = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} (1+x)^{\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} {1/x} * \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} x} \\ &= \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} (1+x)^{\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} {x/x}} = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} (1+x) \\ &\therefore \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}(e^x) = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} (1+x) \end{align*}$$