Solving some problems regarding limits and sequence convergence, i stumbled upon a task, and it's solution relies on, and i quote: "We now use a well-known theorem : $$\lim_{n \to +\infty }{\sqrt[n]{a_1 a_2 \ldots a_n}} = \lim_{n \to +\infty}{a_n}$$
This isn't really intuitive (at least to me) and I don't know how to prove it. The original task was to find the limit of $$\lim_{n \to +\infty }{\sqrt[n]{\bigg{(}1+\frac{1}{1}\bigg{)} \bigg{(}1+\frac{1}{2}\bigg{)}^2 \ldots \bigg{(}1+\frac{1}{n}\bigg{)}^n}} $$ which of course, using the expression above is just $e$.
$$a_n= \begin{cases} 1&\text{if $n$ is odd}\ 2&\text{if $n$ is even} \end{cases}$$
then $\lim_{n\to\infty}\sqrt[n]{a_1a_2\cdots a_n}=\sqrt2$ but $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n$ does not exist.
– Barry Cipra May 28 '20 at 00:48