Here is how to solve your problem. You should know the principle of mathematical induction: Suppose you wish to prove that a proposition $P(n)$ is true for all integers $n \geq 3$, say.
If $P(3)$ is true (the basis step), and whenever $P(n)$ is true (the inductive step) it implies that $P(n+1)$ is true then $P(n)$ is true for all natural numbers $n \geq 3$.
This is the most basic form of induction that I learnt at high school, not even talking of things like the strong form of induction.
I will not solve your problem explicitly for then you will learn nothing. Instead, here is a guide.
Let $P(n)$ be the proposition that you wish to prove, namely
"For all integers $n \geq 3$, $\sum_{k=2}^{n-1} \binom{k}{2} = \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{6}$."
Now I like to think of induction in terms of dominoes. You have a countable number of dominoes stacked next to each other. You want to show that all the dominoes will fall. What do you do? Well you need to make sure that the first domino falls. This is the basis step in induction.
$\color{red}{\text{Step 1 (Basis step):}}$ for $n=3$, the left hand side is $1$ while the right hand side is $(3 \times 2 \times 1)/6 = 1$ so the base case holds.
Now the next step is to assume that given any other domino in your list, it does fall. This is the inductive step:
$\color{red}{\text{Step 2 (Inductive step):}}$ Assume that $P(i)$ holds for an integer $i \geq 1$, viz. it is indeed the case that for such an $i$,
$$\sum_{k=2}^{i-1} = \frac{i(i-1)(i-2)}{6}.$$
Now comes the hard part ($\color{red}{\text{Step 3}}$). You want to show that given a domino that falls, it does indeed hit the domino after it to make that fall too. In other words you want to show that $\color{blue}{\textit{if}}$ $P(i)$ is true $\color{blue}{\textit{then}}$ $P(i+1)$ is true. In other words, assuming that
$$\sum_{k=2}^{i-1} \binom{k}{2} = \frac{i(i-1)(i-2)}{6} \hspace{1in} (a)$$
is true somehow leads to the conclusion that
$$\sum_{k=2}^{i} \binom{k}{2}= \frac{(i+1)(i)(i-1)}{6}. \hspace{1in} (b)$$
Now we get to the heart of the problem. Why does one add for the matter $1/2$ or $1/3$ or whatever to both sides of $(a)$? First of all do you know what we will add to the left side? Well somehow from $(a)$ we want to get to $(b)$. Well if you look at the left hand sides of both $(a)$ and $(b)$, we get $(b)$ from $(a)$ by $\color{green}{\textit{adding}}$ $\binom{i}{2}$ to the left hand side of $(a)$. So if we add $\binom{i}{2}$ to $\color{green}{\textit{the right hand side}}$ of $(a)$ as well and we get $\color{green}{\textit{the right hand side}}$ of $(b)$ you have shown:
The assumption in $(a)$ being true has led to $(b)$ being true, viz. assuming that your proposition $P(n)$ being true for $n=i$ has led to $P(i+1)$ being true. Therefore by induction,
$P(n)$ is true for all positive integers $n$.
I leave you to check the arithmetic that adding $\binom{i}{2}$ to the right hand side of $(a)$ does indeed give the right hand side of $(b)$.
Regards.