Binary expansion Unique

Question

I am trying to show that how the binary expansion of a given positive integer is unique.

According to this link, http://www.math.fsu.edu/~pkirby/mad2104/SlideShow/s5_3.pdf, All I see is that I can recopy theorem 3-1's proof?

Is this polished enough of an argument. Thanks

For more answers, see the duplicate at https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3017323/is-there-an-easy-way-to-see-that-binary-expansion-is-unique/3017368#3017368 — Ethan Bolker, Nov 29 '18 at 12:50

score 3 · Accepted Answer · answered Feb 08 '13 at 08:56

Assume for contradiction that $n$ is the smallest positive integer with two different binary expansions.

Then $n=a_m\dots a_0=b_m\dots b_0$, allowing leading zeroes in at most one of the expansions.

Let $l$ be the smallest index so that $a_l\neq b_l$. It follows that $a_m\dots a_l = b_m\dots b_l$ are distinct representations of the same number. $l$ must be $0$ due to minimality of $n$, but then our original number would be both odd and even, contradiction.

score 3 · Answer 2 · answered Jan 17 '12 at 06:13

3

Assume by contradiction that a number $n$ has two different binary expansions.

Then $n=a_m...a_0=b_k...b_0$.

Let $l$ be the smallest index so that $a_l \neq b_l$. It follows that the binary numbers $a_{l-1}...a_1a_0=b_{l-1}...b_1b_0$. By subtracting these from $n$ we get

$$a_m...a_l00000..0=b_k...b_l0000...0 \,.$$

Now $a_l\neq b_l$ means that one of these is $0$ and the other is $1$. But then, one side ends in at least $l+1$ zeroes, meaning is divisible by $2^{l+1}$, while the other ends in exactly $l$ zeroes, meaning is not divisible by $2^{l+1}$.

This contradicts the fact that they are equal....

answered Jan 17 '12 at 06:13

N. S.

132,525

1

BTW, the last step seems to rely on the fact that we are in basis 2, since i used the fact that if two binary digits are different one must be 0... But it is not, if you work in a different basis, and the last digits $a_l, b_l$ are different, than by subtracting $a_l$ from both you can make one of them $0$... – N. S. Jan 17 '12 at 17:07
Perhaps the best answer in my opinion, but I don't see how $l$ leading zeros means the number is divisible by $2^{l}$. Please provide some theorem or example, if possible. – ankush981 Dec 15 '13 at 11:11

Bill Dubuque · Answer 3 · 2016-07-04T16:56:57.970

2

Hint $\ $ Put $\ b_i = 2\ $ in this sketched proof of the uniqueness of mixed-radix representation

$$\begin{eqnarray} n &=& d_0 +\ d_1\, b_0 +\ d_2\, b_1\,b_0 +\ d_3\, b_2\,b_1\,b_0 +\ \cdots, \quad 0 \le d_i < b_i,\ \ b_i > 1\\[0.1em] &=&c_0\, +\, c_1\, b_0 +\, c_2\,\, b_1\,b_0 + \, c_3\,\, b_2\,b_1\,b_0 +\ \cdots, \quad 0 \le c_i < b_i\end{eqnarray}$$

$\, c_0 = d_0\ $ since $\,{\rm mod}\ b_0\!:\ c_0 \equiv n\equiv d_0\, $ and $\ 0 \le c_0,d_0 < b_0.\, $ Now induct on smaller tails

$$\begin{eqnarray} (n-d_0)/b_0 &=& d_1 +\ d_2\, b_1 +\ d_3\, b_2\, b_1 + \ \cdots\\[0.1em] =\, (n-c_0)/b_0 &=& c_1 +\, c_2\,\, b_1 +\ c_3\ b_2\, b_1 + \ \cdots \end{eqnarray}$$

$(n-d_0)/b_0 \le\, n/b_0 <\, n\ $ by $\,d_0 \ge 0,\ b_0 > 1,\,$ so by induction $\ c_i = d_i\ $ for $\,i \ge 1.$

edited Jul 04 '16 at 16:56

answered Jan 16 '12 at 19:39

Bill Dubuque

272,048

I don't understand how "arised iteratively" helps in the proof. – Buddy Holly Jan 17 '12 at 05:29
@Buddy Iteration = induction. The first digit $\rm:d_0:$ is unique because it is $\rm:n\ mod\ b:.:$ The remaining digits are unique by induction applied to $\rm:(n-d_0)/b\ =\ d_1 + d_2\ b +:\cdots$ – Bill Dubuque Jan 17 '12 at 05:52
OK, did we do the induction portion, cause I'm a bit lost on organizing it – Buddy Holly Jan 17 '12 at 06:48
@Buddy I edited my post to give a sketch of the inductive proof. – Bill Dubuque Jan 17 '12 at 17:03

Binary expansion Unique

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