Prove $X = (X_n)_{n \geq 0}$ is a martingale w/rt $\mathscr{F}$ where X is given by:
$X_0 = 1$
and for $n \geq 1$
$X_{n+1} = 2X_n$ w/ prob 1/2
$X_{n+1} = 0$ w/ prob 1/2
and $\mathscr{F_n} = \mathscr{F_n}^{X} \doteq \sigma(X_0, X_1, ..., X_n)$.
I think that $X_{n} = 2^{n} \prod_{i=1}^{n} 1_{A_i} \forall n \geq 0$ where $A_1 = \{ \omega \in \Omega | X_{2}(\omega) = 2 X_1(\omega) \} \in \mathscr{F}$ as follows:
$X_{1} = 2X_0* 1_{A_1} + 0*1_{A_1^c}$
$X_{2} = 2X_1* 1_{A_2} + 0*1_{A_2^c}$
$=2(2X_0* 1_{A_1} + 0*1_{A_1^c})*1_{A_2} + 0*1_{A_2^c}$
Is that right? If not, why? If so, here is my attempt:
(leaving out adaptability and integrability stuff)
We must show that $E[X_{n+1}|\mathscr{F_n}] \equiv E[2^{n+1} \prod_{i=1}^{n+1} 1_{A_i}|\mathscr{F_n}] = 2^n \prod_{i=1}^{n} 1_{A_i}$? Is that right?
help please?