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Prove $X = (X_n)_{n \geq 0}$ is a martingale w/rt $\mathscr{F}$ where X is given by:

$X_0 = 1$

and for $n \geq 1$

$X_{n+1} = 2X_n$ w/ prob 1/2

$X_{n+1} = 0$ w/ prob 1/2

and $\mathscr{F_n} = \mathscr{F_n}^{X} \doteq \sigma(X_0, X_1, ..., X_n)$.

I think that $X_{n} = 2^{n} \prod_{i=1}^{n} 1_{A_i} \forall n \geq 0$ where $A_1 = \{ \omega \in \Omega | X_{2}(\omega) = 2 X_1(\omega) \} \in \mathscr{F}$ as follows:

$X_{1} = 2X_0* 1_{A_1} + 0*1_{A_1^c}$

$X_{2} = 2X_1* 1_{A_2} + 0*1_{A_2^c}$

$=2(2X_0* 1_{A_1} + 0*1_{A_1^c})*1_{A_2} + 0*1_{A_2^c}$

Is that right? If not, why? If so, here is my attempt:

(leaving out adaptability and integrability stuff)

We must show that $E[X_{n+1}|\mathscr{F_n}] \equiv E[2^{n+1} \prod_{i=1}^{n+1} 1_{A_i}|\mathscr{F_n}] = 2^n \prod_{i=1}^{n} 1_{A_i}$? Is that right?

help please?

BCLC
  • 13,459

2 Answers2

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Given a filtered probability space $(\Omega, \mathscr{F}, \{\mathscr{F_n}\}, \mathbb{P})$ where $\mathscr{F_n} = \mathscr{F_n}^{X} \doteq \sigma(X_0, X_1, \ldots, X_n)$, show that $X = (X_n)_{n \geq 0}$ is a $(\mathscr{F}_n^X, \mathbb{P})$-martingale where $X$ is given by:

$X_{n+1} = 2X_n$ w/ prob 1/2

$X_{n+1} = 0$ w/ prob 1/2

and $X_0 = 1$.

Define the iid random variables $V_0 = 1$,

$V_1, V_2, \ldots \sim P(V_i = 0) = P(V_i = 2) = 1/2$. Then, $X_n = \prod_{i=0}^{n} V_i$.

  1. $X_n$'s are bounded and hence integrable.
  2. $X_n$'s are adapted to their natural filtration.
  3. $E[X_n \mid \mathscr{F_m}] = X_m$

\begin{align} \text{LHS} & = E\left[\prod_{i=0}^{n} V_i \mid \mathscr{F_m}\right] \\ & = E\left[\prod_{i=0}^{n} V_i \mid \mathscr{F_m}\right] \\ & = E\left[\prod_{i=0}^{m} V_i \prod_{i=m+1}^{n} V_i\mid \mathscr{F_m}\right] \\ & = E\left[X_m \prod_{i=m+1}^{n} V_i\mid \mathscr{F_m}\right] \\ & = X_m E\left[\prod_{i=m+1}^{n} V_i\mid \mathscr{F_m}\right] \\ & = X_m E\left[\prod_{i=m+1}^{n} V_i\right] \tag{*} \\ & = X_m \prod_{i=m+1}^{n} E\left[V_i\right] \text{ by the independence of the $V_i$'s} \\ & = X_m \prod_{i=m+1}^{n} E\left[V_i\right] \\ & = X_m \prod_{i=m+1}^{n} (1) \\ & = \text{RHS} \quad \text{QED} \end{align}

(*)

$\mathscr G_m = \sigma(V_1,\ldots,V_m) \supset \mathscr F_m$

Being independent of $\mathscr G_m$ implies being independent of $\mathscr F_m$

BCLC
  • 13,459
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There are 3 things to check:

  1. $X_n$ is measurable with respect to $F_n$: This is ok by definition of $F$.
  2. $X_n$ is integrable: as $X_n$ is bounded, so that is ok.
  3. (the big part) $E[X_{n+1}|X_n] = X_n$:

conditionally to $X_n$, there are two options:

  • with probability 1/2, $X_{n+1} = 2X_n$
  • with probability 1/2, $X_{n+1} = 0$

hence $$E[X_{n+1}|X_n] = 1/2\times 2X_n + 1/2\times 0 = X_n $$

mookid
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  • Thanks. Aren't we supposed to show $$E[X_{n+1}|\mathscr{F_n}] = X_n $$ ? – BCLC Oct 15 '14 at 13:43
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    yes. In the case of F being the natural filtration of the process, this is the same, but you are right. – mookid Oct 15 '14 at 13:44
  • mookid, sorry I really don't get that last line at all. Isn't it that $E[X_{n+1}|\mathscr{F_n}]$ is $2X_n$ xor $0$? If 0, then no prob, and if $2X_n$, then...? What makes you say that your conditional expectation is prob times value + prob times value? That looks more like $E[X_{n+1}]$ rather than $E[X_{n+1}|\mathscr{F_n}]$...? – BCLC Oct 15 '14 at 13:48
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  • E[...|X_n] is a random variable, and more precisely a deterministic function of the random variable X_n. And E[...] is a deterministic value. This is for the last question.
  • – mookid Oct 15 '14 at 13:51
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  • then, with probability 1/2 this is the $random variable$ $X_{n+1}$ which is equal to $X_n$. Not its expected value.
  • – mookid Oct 15 '14 at 13:51
  • OOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHH THANKS!!!! HAHAHAHAHAHAHA – BCLC Oct 15 '14 at 13:55
  • mookid, in retrospect, I'm not quite sure I get it. Iydmma, may you please explain rigorously? I suspect indicator functions may be involved – BCLC Jun 05 '15 at 11:43
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    @mookid Condition 3. is faulty and should read $E(X_{n+1}\mid\mathcal F_n)=X_n$ almost surely, as written in every definition of martingale. Exercise: Find a process $(X_n)$ such that $E(X_{n+1}\mid X_n)=X_n$ almost surely but $(X_n)$ is not a martingale. – Did Jun 06 '15 at 11:03
  • @Did Thanks for clarifying that. I'm guessing this one is wrong then...? http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1282010/gambling-game-martingale#comment2603506_1282170 – BCLC Jun 06 '15 at 15:07