Clive has taken a standard approach. It's standard to show you have an injection from the set mapping to the natural numbers - that then means you can make a bijection. Here's a constructive approach;
$A\setminus B \cup B = A \cup B$ but the LHS is made up of disjoint sets. Taking your (known?) bijection from the integers and the natural numbers, could you find a bijection between A\B U B and $\mathbb N$ ?
Now, we can prove every subset of a countable set is countable - how? Let Z be a subset of the countable set Y, where $f: \mathbb N \rightarrow Y$ is a bijection. Then Z is finite or infinite - we can assume it's infinite (why)?
Consider $ \{ n | f(n) \in Z \}$ - is that an empty subset of the natural numbers? What is it's least element? Call it x (that is x is the least element).
Now, look at $ \{ n | f(n) \in Z \}$ \ $ \{x \}$ - what is this set's least element? Why can't it be x also? Do you think you could find a bijection?
Does that mean A n B will be countable?
To construct a bijection between $ \mathbb N x \mathbb N $ and $\mathbb N$ is non-trivial (why do we need only find a bijection for $ \mathbb N x \mathbb N $ and not AxB?) in the sense it relies on a little trick. Draw a plane and start ticking off lattice points (points where oordinates are integers). Put your pen on the origin and draw a line to (1,1) - now down to (1,0) then (1,-1), (0,-1), (-1,-1), (-1,0), (-1,1) finally (0,1) - where should we go next? Is there a 'formula' for such a route?