Playing a bit around with WA i found this
Namely:
$$\frac {d^n}{d^nx} \left(\frac x{f(x)}\right)^{n+1}=x\left(\frac 1{f(x)}\right)^{n+1}(2)_n$$ For $n\in\mathbb{N_0}$ and $n+1\ne x$ and $x \ne 0$ and $x\ne\frac1{f(x)}$
Where $(a)_n$ is the pochhammer symbol.
It seems very weird to me that the n'th derivative could be expressed so simply.
Is this correct, and if so how could it be proven?