Attention
This question has been slightly modified!!
Reference
It is related to: Bochner Integral: Axioms
Problem
Given a measure space $\Omega$ and a Banach space $E$.
Consider Bochner measurable functions $F\in\mathcal{B}$.
Then integrability is given by: $$\int\|F-S_n\|\mathrm{d}\mu\to0\iff\int\|F\|\mathrm{d}\mu<\infty$$
On the one hand it holds: $$\int\|F\|\mathrm{d}\mu\leq\int\|F-S_N\|\mathrm{d}\mu+\int\|S_N\|\mathrm{d}\mu<1+\infty$$
What about the converse?
Addendum
There's another didactic definition of integrability: $$F\in\mathcal{L}:\iff\int\|S_m-S_n\|\mathrm{d}\mu\to0\quad(S_n\to F)$$ Certainly, one has for a suitable approximation: $$S_n\to F:\quad\int\|S_m-S_n\|\mathrm{d}\mu\leq\int\|F-S_m\|\mathrm{d}\mu+\int\|F-S_n\|\mathrm{d}\mu\to0$$ But what about the converse here?
Caution
Although an integral gives the impression of measurability one should keep in mind that: $$\int\|F-S_n\|\mathrm{d}\mu\to0\quad\nRightarrow\quad F\in\mathcal{B}$$ (For a counterexample see: Bochner Integral: Approximability)