Yes, I know, can't be answered, blah, blah, blah.... but here are a few of my theories. I know, plenty of other questions like this, but before marking this as a duplicate, consider this, my mathematical friends:
- We know that $ x/x = 1 $.
- We also know that $ 0/x = 0 $.
Then, considering these to facts, $$ 0/0 $$ could be
- $ 1 $, because $ x/x = 1 $
- or $ 0 $, because $ 0/x = 0 $
Then, of course we can consider $ x/0 $, where $ x $ can be any real number. Then $ 0/0 $ can be $ 0 $ or $ 1 $, and then the rest according to theory, is $ \infty $ or $ \text {undefined} $. Then how come we say $ \dfrac {x}{0} = \infty $? Or is this only true being $ x \neq 0 $?
Or is it that just for practical sense, we just say that $ x/0 = \infty $? Is it because it is just because it is not computationally possible? Or is it just because $$ \dfrac {5}{\dfrac {1}{2}} = 5(\dfrac {2}{1}) = 10 $$ and then $$ \dfrac {5}{\dfrac {1}{100}} = 500 $$ and then $$ \dfrac {5}{\dfrac {1}{100000}} = 500000 $$ and so the numbers keep on going to $ \infty $ as we get closer to $ 0 $?
I know there are lots of possible answers but then the theory that $ \dfrac {x}{0} = \infty $ even though $ \dfrac {0}{0} $ could be 1 or 0, that just does not make sense to me. I will appreciate any answers / at lease possible answers, because I understand that this is just a very controversial topic of mathematics.
See, there's no way to escape getting something "undefined."
– Akiva Weinberger Aug 17 '14 at 10:41