Does the following series have a 'closed' form : $$\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{(n+a)(n+b)}.$$ Where $n\in \Bbb{N}$ and $a,b \in (0,+\infty)$
For $a,b$ integer we can use Partial fraction decomposition. Using Maple for the general case it seems the 'closed' form is $$ \frac{\Psi(1+a)-\Psi(1+b)}{a-b} $$
Any ideas how to show that?