I'd like to ask this question sooner rather than later; it might be a bit half-baked. So I'm sorry. It's just that there's a chance I'll be side-tracked from Topos Theory for a couple of months (with some group-theoretic ideas).
What makes "the topos $\mathbf{M}_2$" such a good topos-theoretic counterexample?
Goldblatt makes heavy use of $\mathbf{M}_2$-$\mathbf{Set}$, referred to as "the topos $\mathbf{M}_2$," as a source of counterexamples to various phenomena in Topos Theory; in fact, he calls it the "canonical" and "universal" counterexample.
Is this topos unique in its pathology?
Let's have a recap of the definitions:
Definition 1: The monoid $\mathbf{M}_2$ is given by $(2=\{0,1\}, \cdot, 1)$, where $\cdot$ is defined by $$1\cdot1=1,\quad\quad 1\cdot0=0\cdot1=0\cdot 0=0.$$
Definition 2: An $\mathbf{M}_2$-set is a pair $(X, \lambda)$, where $X$ is a set and $\lambda: \mathbf{M}_2\times X\to X$ is an action of $\mathbf{M}_2$ on $X$.
Definition 3: The topos $\mathbf{M}_2$-$\mathbf{Set}$ is the category whose objects are $\mathbf{M}_2$-sets and whose morphisms are action-preserving functions. A proof that it's a topos is given here (with $M$ as $\mathbf{M}_2$).
Specific examples of how this thing acts as a counterexample are currently beyond my ability to explain. They're several chapters deep into Goldblatt's book.
Thoughts: I don't have anything non-trivial to say. (I've already given the basic definitions so I don't want to insult your intelligence . . . ).