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In this identity

$$1-e{}^{2} = \displaystyle \sum _{n=0}^{\infty } \frac{(-1)^n(\pi )^{2 n}} {(2 n)!}\sum _{k=0}^{2 n} (-1)^{k} S_2(2 n,1-k+2 n),$$

$S_2$ is a Stirling number of the second kind. Would this be classified as a combinatoric identity? I suspect that the finite sum can be simplified. Is there a known closed form?

When odd powers taken instead of $2n$, it is equal to zero.

I'm not sure how to prove it analytically. Help with proof, or references to similar identities would be helpful.

Tisego
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1 Answers1

4

Let us restate the sum that is to be evaluated: $$\sum_{n\ge 0} \frac{(-1)^n \pi^{2n}}{(2n)!} \sum_{k=0}^{2n} (-1)^k {2n \brace 2n+1-k}.$$

Recall the bivariate generating function of the Stirling numbers of the second kind: $$G(z, u) = \exp(u(\exp(z)-1)).$$

Substituting this into the sum yields $$\sum_{n\ge 0} \frac{(-1)^n \pi^{2n}}{(2n)!} \sum_{k=0}^{2n} (-1)^k (2n)! [z^{2n}] \frac{(\exp(z)-1)^{2n+1-k}}{(2n+1-k)!}$$ which is $$\sum_{n\ge 0} \frac{(-1)^n \pi^{2n}}{(2n)!} (2n)! [z^{2n}] \sum_{k=1}^{2n+1} (-1)^{2n+1-k} \frac{(\exp(z)-1)^k}{k!}.$$ We now extend the summation to the re-indexed $k=0$ which only contributes to $[z^0]$ by a value of $-1$. We cancel this by adding $1$ at the front to get $$1+\sum_{n\ge 0} \frac{(-1)^n \pi^{2n}}{(2n)!} (2n)! [z^{2n}] \sum_{k=0}^{2n+1} (-1)^{2n+1-k} \frac{(\exp(z)-1)^k}{k!}.$$

The inner exponential term starts at $z$ so we may re-write this as $$1 + \sum_{n\ge 0} \frac{(-1)^n \pi^{2n}}{(2n)!} (-1)^{2n+1} (2n)! [z^{2n}] \sum_{k=0}^\infty (-1)^k \frac{(\exp(z)-1)^k}{k!}$$ which is $$1 - \sum_{n\ge 0} \frac{(-1)^n \pi^{2n}}{(2n)!} (2n)! [z^{2n}] \sum_{k=0}^\infty (-1)^k \frac{(\exp(z)-1)^k}{k!}$$ and we finally obtain $$1 - \sum_{n\ge 0} \frac{(-1)^n \pi^{2n}}{(2n)!} (2n)! [z^{2n}] \exp(1-\exp(z)).$$

What we have here is an annihilated coefficient extractor that extracts the even terms from the series of $$\exp(1-\exp(z))$$ and sums and evaluates them at $z=i\pi.$ But the even terms are $$\frac{1}{2} \exp(1-\exp(z)) + \frac{1}{2} \exp(1-\exp(-z)).$$ This yields $$1 -\left(\frac{1}{2} \exp(1-\exp(i\pi)) + \frac{1}{2} \exp(1-\exp(-i\pi))\right)$$ or $$1 -\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \exp(2) + \frac{1}{2} \times \exp(2)\right) = 1-e^2.$$

The technique of annihilated coefficient extractors (ACE) is also employed at this MSE link I and this MSE link II.

Marko Riedel
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