I came upon this proof of equivalence between the geometric and algebraic definitions of the dot product. I do not understand why this person multiplies the two vectors together, that's not the dot product. The dot product is the product of the component of one vector going in the same direction as the other, and the other one itself. Why would this person multiply the two actual vectors together to get the algebraic definition when this I not the dot product?
Here is the proof:
$$\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} = \left|\vec{a} \right|\cdot \left| \vec{b} \right| \cos \theta$$
Decomposing the vector into its unit vectors (assuming 2D for simplicity):
$$\begin{eqnarray} a &=& a_x\hat{i} + a_y \hat{j}\\ b &=& b_x \hat{i} + b_y \hat{j} \end{eqnarray}$$
Multiplying the two vectors (loosely using the term 'multiplication') i.e., taking their dot product literally:
$$\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} = a_x \hat{i} \cdot b_x \hat{i} + a_x \hat{i} \cdot b_y \hat{j} + a_y \hat{j} \cdot b_x \hat{i} + a_y \hat{j} \cdot b_y \hat{j} = a_x b_x + a_y b_y, $$
since $\hat{i} \cdot \hat{i} = 1$ and $\hat{i} \cdot \hat{j} = 0$ (i.e., angle between $\hat{i}$ and $\hat{j}$ is $90^\circ$) and that $a_x,a_y,b_x,b_y$ are scalars. Q.E.D.
Why are they the same???
– gt6989b May 01 '14 at 21:03