Short simple question which i managed to solve partially.
we are given the equation $x^2+y^2-z^2+xz-yz-1=0$.
Show using the implicit function theorem that this equation sets in the neighborhood of $(1,0,1)$ $z$ as a function of $x$ and $y$ and find: $\frac{dz}{dx},\frac{dz}{dy},\frac{d^2z}{dxdy}$ where $x=1$ and $y=0$
My answer:
Define $F(x,y,z)=x^2+y^2-z^2+xz-yz-1$. Notice that $F(1,0,1)=0$.
$F_x=2x+z$ , $F_y=2y-z$ , $F_z=-2z+x-y$ are all continouos functions, and $F$ itself is continuous as well, and as such $F \in C^1$.
Also notice that $F_z(1,0,1)=-1 \neq 0$ and so $F_z$ is invertible at that point, and according to IFT, we can represent $z=z(x,y)$ as a function of $x$ and $y$ around that point.
Now where I am having difficulties.
if you look at an earlier question I asked Question about Implicit function theorem I tried deriving like I did then, and it does not work. If i was to do the same thing:
$$\frac{dz}{dx} = -\frac{F_x}{F_z} = -\frac{2x+z}{x-y-2z}$$
I didn't get rid of the $z$. and the question only said $x=1$ and $y=0$. Is that because I must put $z=1$? or should the derivative be "free" of $z$?