So we are trying to integrate the following expression $~~~\rightarrow ~~~ \displaystyle\int_0^{\pi} \sin 2x\sin x\ dx$.
To do the this, we will need to make an appropriate substitution inside of the integrand and would be nice to use the double-angle trigonometric identity for $\sin 2x$. Doing this leads us to the following:
$~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi} \sin 2x\sin x\ dx$
$$\Rightarrow~\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi} 2\sin x \cos x \sin x\ dx~~~~~\Big(\because~\sin 2x =2\sin x \cos x \Big)$$
$~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\Rightarrow~\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi} 2\sin^{2} x \cos x\ dx$
Let: $~u =\sin x$
$du= \cos x\ dx$
$dx=\dfrac{1}{\cos x}\ du$
$~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\Rightarrow~\displaystyle 2\int_0^{\pi} u^{2} \cos x \cdot \dfrac{1}{\cos x}\ du$
$~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\Rightarrow~\displaystyle 2\int_0^{\pi} u^{2}~du$
$~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\Rightarrow~\displaystyle 2\Bigg[~ \dfrac{u^{3}}{3} \Bigg|_{x=0}^{x=\pi} ~~\Bigg]$
$~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\Rightarrow~\displaystyle 2\Bigg[~ \dfrac{\sin^{3} x}{3} \Bigg|_{x=0}^{x=\pi} ~~\Bigg]$
$~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\Rightarrow~\displaystyle 2\Bigg[~ \dfrac{(\sin (\pi))^{3}}{3}-\dfrac{(\sin (0))^{3}}{3} ~~\Bigg]$
$~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\Rightarrow~\displaystyle 2\Big[~0 ~\Big]~~~~\Big(\because~ \sin (\pi)=0 ~~\&~~ \sin (0)=0\Big)$
$~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~=~~0$
$$\therefore~\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi} \sin 2x\sin x\ dx=0$$
HINT: Another way to look at it is that $\sin (x)$ is zero on the unit circle at coordinates 0 and $\pi$, so once you get to the line where it says $u^{2}$ and you have seen that the $\cos (x)$ has cancelled and realized that your substitution you made was $\sin (x)$ and that is what you must plug back into $u$ to put the answer back in terms of x or another option would be to change the limits of integration with the u - substitution. But once you see that u =$\sin (x)$ and notice the limits of integration are exactly where $\sin (x)=0$, you can quickly say that the integral is $0$ without even integrating using the power rule and evaluating the end-points.
Okay, I hope that this has helped out. Let me know if there is anything point covered that did not make much sense for doing.
Thanks.
Good Luck.