Let $(X_1,X_2,..., X_n)$ be a random sample from a normal population with mean $0$ and variance $1$. I would like to show that
$$(n-1)S^2|\bar X \sim \chi^2(n-1).$$
I know there is many way to do this, I would like to have your opinion on the following way:
$(n-1)S^2$ can be factorize in a function of $(X_2-\bar X, X_3- \bar X,\ldots, X_n - \bar X)=A$ as follow $$(n-1)S^2=(\sum_{i=2}^{n}(X_i- \bar X))^2+\sum_{i=2}^{n}(X_i - \bar X)^2 \tag{1}.$$ I can find a conditional probability density function $f(x_2,x_3,\ldots,x_n|\bar x)=P(X_2=x_2, X_3=x_3,...X_n=x_n|\bar X = \bar x)$.
I did the derivation and I found that $f$ simplify to $f(x_2,x_3,...,x_n|\bar x)=ce^{-(n-1)S^2 \over 2}$, where c is a constant such that the density integrates to $1$.
At this point is there any way to infer that $(n-1)S^2|\bar X \sim \chi^2(n-1)$?
I think it's not possible since $(1)$ is not a simple expression of $A$, and makes computation of the density of $(n-1)S^2|\bar X$ from $f$ difficult. But probably there is something I don't see here. Thanks.