Theorem. Let $f\colon I \to J$, where $I$ is an interval and $J$ is the image $f(I)$, be a function such that:
- $f$ is strictly increasing on $I$.
- $f$ is continuous on $I$.
Then $J$ is an interval, and $f$ has an inverse function $f^{-1}\colon J\to I$ such that:
- $f^{-1}$ is strictly increasing on $J$.
- $f^{-1}$ is continuous on $J$.
I need to prove only that $f^{-1}$ is continuous on $J$.
Proof. Let $y\in J$, and (for simplicity) assume that $y$ is not an end-point of $J$. Then $y=f(x)$, for some $x\in I$, and we want to prove that $$y_n\to y\implies f^{-1}(y_n)\to f^{-1}(y)=x.$$ Thus we want to deduce that for each $\varepsilon>0$, there is some number $X$ such that $$x-\varepsilon<f^{-1}(y_n)<x+\varepsilon\qquad \forall n>X\qquad(1).$$ Since $f$ is strictly increasing, we know that $$f(x-\varepsilon)<f(x)<f(x+\varepsilon).$$ also, since $y_n\to y=f(x)$, there is some number $X$ such that $$f(x-\varepsilon)<y_n<f(x+\varepsilon), \qquad\forall n>X.$$ Then, applying the strictly increasing function $f^{-1}$ to these inequalities, we obtain (1).
Edit
I don't understand why, since $y_n\to y=f(x)$, there is some number $X$ such that $$f(x-\varepsilon)<y_n<f(x+\varepsilon), \qquad\forall n>X.$$ I would have written the last line as follows: $$f(x)-\varepsilon<y_n<f(x)+\varepsilon, \qquad\forall n>X.$$ Applying the $f^{-1}$ to my last line, which I think it's correct, I obtain $$f^{-1}[f(x)-\varepsilon]<f^{-1}[y_n]<f^{-1}[f(x)+\varepsilon], \qquad\forall n>X.$$ which is not (1).
What am I misunderstanding? Why the author of this proof wrote that last line and not my version?
Thank you.