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enter image description here I am revising for an exam that is later today. I'm attempting all questions on past papers. Proof is a topic i've had difficulty with, if someone could check over my answer and give me some improvements for full marks, that'd be fantastic.

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Sorry if the image isn't too clear.

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Your proof is correct. In fact, you just need to rewrite the last formula into to following form to complete the induction:

$take(k+1)=100-2(k+1)$.

Xucheng Zhang
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  • Thanks. I don't follow here the (k+1) one comes from though, whereas I have 2*k? – user120993 Jan 13 '14 at 10:37
  • anyone answer that question please? – user120993 Jan 13 '14 at 10:57
  • @user120993: What you want to show is that the equation $take(n)=100-2n$ holds for $k+1$. This means to replace every instance of $n$ with $k+1$. That is, you want to show that $take(k+1)=100-2(k+1)$. What you have is that $take(k+1)=100-2k-2$. I'm sure you can see why these are the same. For a nice explanation on how induction works check this link: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/19485/dominoes-and-induction-or-how-does-induction-work/19488#19488 – Apostolos Jan 13 '14 at 11:30