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Would this argument be valid for proving A for all real numbers greater than or equal to a:

Prove that A is true at n = a.

Assume that A is true for all $ a\le n < k$. Prove that A is true at k.

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No, because your inductive step assumes that you know $A$ holds on some initial interval of the form $[a,k)$, but you have only shown that $A$ holds at a single initial point.

  • A single point is an interval: $[a,a]$. Could you elaborate more? – J126 Dec 14 '13 at 02:52
  • Okay, I've clarified. –  Dec 14 '13 at 02:56
  • What if the "base case" is an interval? – Mayank Pandey Dec 14 '13 at 04:19
  • Well if you show $A$ holds on the initial interval $[a,k)$, then show that $A$ holds on $[a,k)$ implies $A$ holds on $[a,k]$, you'll still only have shown that $A$ holds on $[a,k]$. I suggest you look at the links Dubuque posted to see how induction on the reals can work. –  Dec 15 '13 at 00:23