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I am trying to prove that

\begin{equation} \int_{0}^{1}\frac{\log\left(x\right) \log\left(\,{1 - x^{4}}\,\right)}{1 + x^{2}} \,\mathrm{d}x = \frac{\pi^{3}}{16} - 3\mathrm{G}\log\left(2\right) \tag{1} \end{equation}

where $\mathrm{G}$ is Catalan's Constant.

I was able to express it in terms of Euler Sums but it does not seem to be of any use.

\begin{align} &\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\log\left(x\right) \log\left(\,{1 - x^{4}}\,\right)}{1 + x^{2}} \,\mathrm{d}x \\[3mm] = &\ \frac{1}{16}\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} \frac{\psi_{1}\left(1/4 + n\right) - \psi_{1}\left(3/4 + n\right)}{n} \tag{2} \end{align}

Here $\psi_{n}\left(z\right)$ denotes the polygamma function.

Can you help me solve this problem $?$.

Felix Marin
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  • Its value equals $0.033195385237175505243536463953369601991099944635828. $ – user64494 Oct 13 '13 at 09:25
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    Taking $u=\log(1+x^2)$, I get $\tfrac 12 \sqrt {e^u-1}du={dx\over 1+x^2}$, and then the original has broken apart to $\int_0^1{\log x(\log (1-x)+\log (1+x))\over 1+x^2}dx +\int\tfrac 12 \sqrt{e^u-1}\log\sqrt{e^u-1}du$... Hmm, that doesn't really help much though... – abiessu Oct 13 '13 at 12:40
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    That sum can also be expressed as $$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{H_{n}}{(4n+1)^{2}} - \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{H_{n}}{(4n+3)^{2}}$$ – Random Variable Oct 14 '13 at 15:21
  • I'm surprised Ron hasn't jumped on this one yet. – Bennett Gardiner Oct 20 '13 at 10:38
  • I find that Mathematica can do this integral with a bit of prodding. Are you looking for just any way of establishing this, or do you also want it to be human-readable? – Kirill Oct 22 '13 at 01:28
  • @Kirill: I think it would be great if the solution is human friendly. – Shobhit Bhatnagar Oct 22 '13 at 04:01
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    The indefinite integral is the imaginary part of this: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integrate+Log%5Bx%5DLog%5B1-x%5E4%5D%2F(x-I) – Kirill Oct 22 '13 at 14:17
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    Can I buy a vowel please? Where did this integral come from? – cactus314 Oct 23 '13 at 15:38
  • @johnmangual: I saw it posted on AoPS forum a long time ago. – Shobhit Bhatnagar Oct 24 '13 at 05:28
  • I don't know if this will be of any use, but I find the following interesting: $$\frac{\pi}{4} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{2 k+1}$$ $$\frac{\pi^2}{12} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{(k+1)^2} $$ $$\log{2} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{k+1} $$ $$G = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{(2 k+1)^2}$$ – Ron Gordon Oct 25 '13 at 00:27
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    @BennettGardiner: rest assured that I have spent some not insignificant time on this. The best I could muster was the above observation. I gained nothing from my usual arsenal. – Ron Gordon Oct 25 '13 at 00:30
  • Me too, I think a few people have. – Bennett Gardiner Oct 25 '13 at 07:49
  • The reflection formula of $\psi_1$ may help. – J.G. Aug 21 '16 at 18:37

7 Answers7

22

I tried substitutions and the differentiation w.r.t a paramater trick like the other posters. Another partial result, or a trail of breadcrumbs to follow, is the following. We try a series expansion, $$ \frac{\log\left(1-x^4\right)}{1+x^2} = \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} x^{4k}\left(x^{2} -1\right)H_k, $$ where $H_k$ are the Harmonic numbers. Then \begin{align} \int_0^1 \frac{\log x \log \left(1-x^4 \right)}{1+x^2}\ \mathrm{d}x &=\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\, H_k\int_0^1 x^{4k}\left(x^{2} -1\right)\log x \ \mathrm{d}x \\ &=\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \, \frac{H_k}{(4k+1)^2}-\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \, \frac{H_k}{(4k+3)^2}. \end{align} These sums look very similar to the ones evaluated in this post, in which they are transformed into alternating sums. Using the same techniques, or perhaps working back from the answers, we can hopefully show that $$ \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \, \frac{H_k}{(4k+1)^2} = -G\left(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\log 8}{2} \right) +\frac{7}{4}\zeta(3) +\frac{\pi^3}{32} - \frac{\pi^2}{16}\log 8, $$ $$ \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \, \frac{H_k}{(4k+3)^2} = -G\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{\log 8}{2} \right) +\frac{7}{4}\zeta(3) -\frac{\pi^3}{32} - \frac{\pi^2}{16}\log 8, $$ Subtracting the second from the first gives us $$ \frac{\pi^3}{16}-G\log 8. $$

16

The following is a proof of the formula $$S= \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{H_{k}}{ (k+a)^{2}}= \left(\gamma + \psi(a) \right) \psi_{1}(a) - \frac{\psi_{2}(a)}{2} \, , \quad a >0.$$

This formula is mentioned in a comment under Bennett Gardiner's answer.

(For $a=0$, the right side of the equation should be interpreted as a limit).

$$ \begin{align} S &= \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{H_{k}}{(k+a)^{2}} \\ &= \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(k+a)^{2}} \sum_{n=1}^{k} \frac{1}{n} \\& = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=n}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(k+a)^2} \\ &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\psi_{1}(a+n)}{n} \\ &= - \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n} \int_{0}^{1} \frac{x^{a+n-1} \ln x}{1-x} \, dx \tag{1} \\ &= - \int_{0}^{1} \frac{x^{a-1} \ln x}{1-x} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^{n}}{n} \, dx \\ &= \int_{0}^{1} \frac{x^{a-1} \ln x \ln(1-x)}{1-x} \, dx \\ &= \lim_{b \to 0^{+}} \frac{\partial }{\partial a \, \partial b} B(a,b) \\ &= \small \lim_{b \to 0^{+}} \frac{\Gamma(a) \Gamma(b)}{\Gamma(a+b)} \left( \psi(a) \psi(b) - \psi(a)\psi(a+b) - \psi(b) \psi(a+b) + \psi^{2}(a+b) - \psi_{1}(a+b) \right) \tag{2} \\ &= \lim_{b \to 0^{+}} \frac{\Gamma(a)}{\Gamma(a+b)} \left( \frac{1}{b} - \gamma + \mathcal{O}(b) \right)\left( \left( \gamma \psi_{1}(a) + \psi(a) \psi_{1} (a) - \frac{\psi_{2}(a)}{2} \right)b + \mathcal{O}(b^{2}) \right) \\ &= \left(\gamma + \psi(a) \right) \psi_{1}(a) - \frac{\psi_{2}(a)}{2} \end{align}$$


$(1)$ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trigamma_function#Calculation

$(2)$ http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BetaFunction.html (26)

5

$$I=\int_0^1 \frac{\ln x \log \left(1-x^4 \right)}{1+x^2}dx$$

Let,

\begin{align*} \displaystyle A&=\int_0^1 \dfrac{x\arctan x\ln x}{1+x^2}dx\\ \displaystyle B&=\int_0^1 \dfrac{\ln x \ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx\\ \displaystyle C&=\int_0^1 \dfrac{\arctan x\ln x}{1+x}dx\\ \end{align*}

From Evaluating $\int_0^{\pi/4} \ln(\tan x)\ln(\cos x-\sin x)dx=\frac{G\ln 2}{2}$ ,

it follows that,

$$\displaystyle \int_0^1\dfrac{\ln x\ln(1+x)}{1+x^2}dx=A-\dfrac{1}{2}B-C-2G\ln 2+\beta(3)$$

and,

$$(1)\boxed{A=\dfrac{1}{64}\pi^3-B-G\ln 2}$$

with,

$$\displaystyle \beta(3)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)^3}$$

Thus,

$$(2)\boxed{\displaystyle \int_0^1\dfrac{\ln x\ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx=\dfrac{\pi^3}{64}-\dfrac{3}{2}B-C-3G\ln 2+\beta(3)}$$

$G$, being the Catalan constant,

From Evaluating $\int_0^{\pi/4} \ln(\tan x)\ln(\cos x-\sin x)dx=\frac{G\ln 2}{2}$ ,

it follows that,

$$\displaystyle\int_0^{1}\dfrac{\ln x\ln(1-x)}{1+x^2}dx=A+\dfrac{1}{2}B+\beta(3)+\int_0^1\dfrac{\ln x\arctan x }{1-x}dx$$

and,

$$\displaystyle \int_0^1\dfrac{\ln x\arctan x}{1-x}dx=B-C+2G\ln 2-\dfrac{1}{16}\pi^3$$

Thus, using (1),

$$(3)\boxed{\displaystyle\int_0^{1}\dfrac{\ln x\ln(1-x)}{1+x^2}dx=\dfrac{1}{2}B-C+G\ln 2-\dfrac{3\pi^3}{64}+\beta(3)}$$

Therefore,

\begin{align} \int_0^1 \frac{\ln x \log \left(1-x^4 \right)}{1+x^2}dx&=\int_0^1\dfrac{\ln x\ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx+\int_0^1\dfrac{\ln x\ln(1+x)}{1+x^2}dx+\int_0^1\dfrac{\ln x\ln(1-x)}{1+x^2}dx\\ &=B+\dfrac{\pi^3}{64}-\dfrac{3}{2}B-C-3G\ln 2+\beta(3)+\dfrac{1}{2}B-C+G\ln 2-\dfrac{3\pi^3}{64}+\beta(3)\\ &=2\beta(3)-\dfrac{\pi^3}{32}-2G\ln 2-2C \end{align}

$C$ have been already evaluated (see Evaluating $\int_0^1 \frac{\arctan x \log x}{1+x}dx$ )

\begin{equation} \boxed{\displaystyle C=\dfrac{G\ln 2}{2}-\dfrac{\pi^3}{64}} \end{equation}

and, knowing that,

\begin{equation} \beta(3)=\dfrac{\pi^3}{32} \end{equation}

it follows that,

$$\boxed{I=\dfrac{\pi^3}{16}-3G\ln 2}$$

FDP
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5

This is a partial solution.

Let us put, for $0\leq t\leq 1$,

$$F(t) = \int_0^1 \frac{\log x \log(1-tx^4)}{1+x^2} dx$$

Then

$$F'(t) = -\int_0^1 \frac{x^4\log x}{(1+x^2)(1-tx^4)} dx = -\int_0^1 \frac{x^4\log x}{1+x^2} \sum_{n=0}^\infty t^nx^{4n} dx$$

$$=-\sum_{n=0}^\infty t^{n} C_{4(n+1)}$$

where $$C_m = \int_0^1 \frac{x^{m}\log x}{1+x^2} dx.$$

One has $C_0 = -G$. Multiplying both sides of the identity $$x^m = \frac{x^m}{1+x^2} + \frac{x^{m+2}}{1+x^2}$$ by $\log x$ and integrating from $0$ to $1$, one finds the recurrence formula

$$C_m + C_{m+2} = \frac{-1}{(1+m)^2}$$

and therefore

$$C_{m+4} - C_m = \frac{-1}{(3+m)^2} + \frac{1}{(1+m)^2}.$$

Therefore,

$$C_0 = -G$$ $$C_4 = -G +1 - \frac{1}{3^2}$$ $$C_8 = -G + 1 - \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} - \frac{1}{7^2}.$$

and so on. (Remark that $C_{4n} \to 0$ by definition of $G$.) Now, remark that $F(0) = 0$, so your integral is

$$F(1) = \int_0^1 F'(t) dt = -\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{C_{4(n+1)}}{n+1} = -\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{C_{4n}}{n}.$$

Now, it should be a matter of partial summation to transform the sum $-\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{C_{4n}}{n}$ into $\pi^3/16 -3G\log 2$ (in a manner similar to this), but I don't see it right away. I'll think about it a bit more later.

Bruno Joyal
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  • This appears to be equivalent to the equation (2) in the question, by the definition of the trigamma function $\psi_1$. – Kirill Oct 24 '13 at 23:28
  • Dear @Kirill, how so? – Bruno Joyal Oct 24 '13 at 23:44
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    The solution to your recurrence for $C_{4n}$ is $$C_{4n}=\frac{\psi_1(\frac34+k)-\psi_1(\frac14+k)}{16}, $$ so evaluating the sum $\sum\frac{C_{4n}}{n}$ is still not not trivial. – Kirill Oct 24 '13 at 23:55
  • Dear @Kirill, what you write is not obvious to me. Perhaps I am overlooking something? (What is $k$?) I think that a partial summation method can definitely take care of this sum. See for example this, which is similar. – Bruno Joyal Oct 25 '13 at 00:05
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    Oops, $k$ is meant to be $n$---error in trasncription. All I meant was that the final expression you derived was already posted in the answer, so it's not really fair to say "it should be a matter of partial summation to transform the sum". – Kirill Oct 25 '13 at 00:10
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    Dear @Kirill I understand your claim, but your formula for $C_{4n}$ is not obvious to me. That's what I am saying. I am not disputing your formula. In any case, I do believe that it should be a matter of partial summation. Certainly it is fair for me to speak my mind on the matter. I did not claim that it should be trivial. Regards, – Bruno Joyal Oct 25 '13 at 00:14
  • It's a consequence of (19) here, and the definition $\psi_1=\frac{d\psi}{dz}$. – Kirill Oct 25 '13 at 00:30
4

We may use a simple strategy for a similar type of integral that appears in (Almost) Impossible Integrals, Sums, and Series, page $80$, integral $J_1$.

So, we have

$$\int_0^1 \frac{\log (x) \log(1-x^4)}{1+x^2} \textrm{d}x=\int_0^1 \frac{ (1-x^2)\log (x)\log(1-x^4)}{1-x^4} \textrm{d}x$$ $$=\frac{1}{16}\underbrace{\int_0^1 \frac{\log (x)\log (1-x) }{x^{3/4}(1-x) }\textrm{d}x}_{\displaystyle \text{Beta function}}-\frac{1}{16}\underbrace{\int_0^1 \frac{\log (x)\log (1-x) }{x^{1/4}(1-x)} \textrm{d}x}_{\displaystyle \text{Beta function}}=\frac{\pi^3}{16}-3\log(2)G.$$

user97357329
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3

Presented below is a self-contained evaluation. With $\int_0^1 \frac{\ln t}{1+t^2}dt =-G$

\begin{align*} I & = \int_0^1 \frac{\ln x \ln (1-x^4 )}{1+x^2}dx \\ & = \int_0^1 \ln (1-x^4 ) d\left(\int_1^x \frac{\ln t}{1+t^2}dt \right) \overset{IBP}=\int_0^1 \frac{ 4x^3}{1-x^4} \underset{t=xs }{\left(\int_0^x \frac{\ln t}{1+t^2}dt +G \right) } dx \\ & =4\int_0^1 \left( \int_0^1 \frac{x^4 \ln x+x^4\ln s }{(1-x^4 )(1+x^2s^2)}ds +\frac{Gx^3}{1-x^4} \right) dx\\ & =4\int_0^1 \int_0^1 \frac{x^4\ln x}{(1-x^4)(1+x^2s^2)}dsdx -4 \int_0^1\int_0^1 \frac{\ln s}{1+x^2s^2}dx ds \\ & \>\>\>\>\>+ 4 \int_0^1 \left(\int_0^1 \frac{\ln s }{(1-x^4 )(1+x^2s^2)}ds +\frac{Gx ^3}{1-x^4} \right) dx\\ \end{align*} Integrate the 2nd integral \begin{align*} & \int_0^1\int_0^1 \frac{\ln s}{1+x^2s^2}dx ds =\int_0^1 \frac{\ln s\tan^{-1}s}sds \overset{IBP}=-\frac12 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln^2s}{1+s^2}ds=-\frac{\pi^3}{32} \end{align*}

and apply the decomposition below in the 3rd integral

$$\frac{1 }{(1-x^4 )(1+x^2s^2)} = \frac{-s^4}{(1-s^4)(1+x^2s^2)} +\frac1{2(1-s^2)(1+x^2)}+ \frac1{2(1+s^2)(1-x^2)} $$ Then, the 1st integral cancels and \begin{align*} I =& -4\left(-\frac{\pi^3}{32}\right) +2\int_0^1 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln s }{(1-s^2 )(1+x^2)}dx ds \\ &\>\>\> + 2\int_0^1 \left( \int_0^1 \frac{\ln s }{(1+s^2 )(1-x^2)}ds +\frac{2Gx ^3}{1-x^4}\right) dx\\ = & \frac{\pi^3}8+ 2\int_0^1 \frac{\ln s ds }{1-s^2}\int_0^1\frac{dx }{1+x^2} -2G \int_0^1 \left( \frac{1}{1-x^2} -\frac{2x^3}{1-x^4}\right) dx\\ = & \frac{\pi^3}8+ 2\left(-\frac{\pi^2}{8}\right) \frac\pi4 -2G \int_0^1 \left( \frac{x}{1+x^2} +\frac{1}{1+x}\right) dx\\ = & \frac{\pi^3}{16} -3G\ln2\\ \end{align*}

Quanto
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0

I have several pieces of this, but can't quite put them together. Perhaps someone else can pick up from here.

$\int_0^1 \frac{logxlog(1-x^4)}{(1+x^2)}dx$

We are going to let $u = (1-x^4)$ giving du = $-4x^3dx$.

Rewriting the first integral we have

$\int_0^1 \frac{-4x^3logxlog(1-x^4)}{-4x^3(1+x^2)}dx$ =

$\int_0^1 \frac{log(1-u)^{1/4}log(u)}{-4(1-u)^{3/4}(1+u^{1/2})}du$ =

(-1/16)$\int_0^1 \frac{log(1-u)log(u)}{(1-u)^{3/4}(1+(1-u)^{1/2})}du$

Let v = 1-u so dv = -du which gets us to

(1/16)$\int_0^1 \frac{log(v)log2(v^{1/2}(v^{-1/2}-v^{1/2})/2}{(v)(v^{-1/4}+v^{1/4})}dv \hspace{50px}$ The fact that the 1/16 shows up is encouraging.

Now let w = log v so that v = $e^w$ and dw = (1/v)dv. So now we have

(1/16)$\int_{-\infty}^0 \frac{w[ log 2 + w/2 + log(-sinh(w))}{2(cosh(v/2)}dw$

Having gotten this far the next step is the Catalan constant which can be defined as $\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)^2} = 1/1^2 - 1/3^2 + 1/5^2 ... $

The log (-sinh(w)) can be expanded in a Taylor's series, with the idea of integrating term by term, and there is some reason to hope that it will produce something helpful. The source of this hope is

Evaluating $\int_0^{\large\frac{\pi}{4}} \log\left( \cos x\right) \, \mathrm{d}x $

What I can't see right now is what would happen with all the other stuff in the integral, but one could hope things might work out.

Betty Mock
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