How would one prove/disprove this? ...
Conjecture:
Suppose $p$, $q$ are distinct primes, and define $\ f(n) = n p, \ g(n) = \left \lfloor \frac{n}{q} \right \rfloor$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N_+}$; then
for all $x,y \in \mathbb{N_+}$, there exists a composition $F = g \circ g \circ \cdots \circ g \circ f \circ f \cdots \circ f$ such that $ \ y = F(x) $.
A weaker conjecture is implicit in the title question -- same as above, but allowing compositions with the functions in arbitrary order.
If this is something well-known or discussed elsewhere, my apologies (I did search); a reference would then be welcome.
(An analogous conjecture by Donald Knuth involving factorial and integer-squareroot functions suggested this question.)