No, you cannot interchange the $\exists y$ and $\forall z$: doing so changes the meaning of the statement. The original statement,
$$\forall x\exists y\forall z\left(x^2-y+z=0\right)$$
says that no matter what positive integer $x$ you choose, I can find a $y\in\Bbb Z^+$ such that $x^2-y+z=0$ no matter what positive integer $z$ you choose. For instance, if you choose $x=1$, I can find some positive integer $y$ such that $1-y+z=0$ for every positive integer $z$. Since $1-y+z=0$ if and only if $z=y-1$, this is clearly false: no matter what $y$ I pick, you can choose for $z$ any positive integer except $y-1$ and ensure that $x^2-y+z$ is not $0$.
The modified statement
$$\forall x\forall z\exists y\left(x^2-y+z=0\right)\;,$$
on the other hand, says something very different: it says that no matter what positive integers you choose for $x$ and $z$, I can find a positive integer $y$ such that $x^2-y+z=0$. And of course I can: I just pick $y=x^2+z$.
Since one statement is true and the other false, they certainly cannot be equivalent.