Here's a proof (with highlighted parts) from Steven Krantz's textbook «Real Analysis and Foundations»: part1 part2
$\color{red}{(1)}$ (from the image) feels extremely arbitrary. What was the author's possible reasoning for trying such a substitution? I see that it indeed does the job, yet I have no idea what motivated it
$\color{orange}{(2)}$ I think most probably the author simply meant $\lim\limits_{k\to\infty} \max\limits_{l \ge k}|a_l| = 0$, right?
$\color{orange}{(3)}$ If the answer to the previous question is «yes», then isn't that expression meaningless? I'm not entirely sure that we're guaranteed that the infinite set $ \{ |a_k|, |a_{k+1}|, \ldots \} $ always has the largest element (even though $\sup$ apparently exists in this case)
$\color{green}{(4)}$ And here I'm completely lost.
- First, why $\color{orange}{(3)} \implies \limsup\limits_{n\to\infty}{|\rho_n|} \le \epsilon \cdot A$?
- And more importantly, why does the lim sup inequality imply $(|\rho_n|)\to 0$?
P.S. I'm sorry for including images (and especially links to the images), but as a new user I cannot embed them into the post directly «just yet» $\, \require{HTML} \style{display: inline-block; transform: rotate(90deg)}{:(}$
P.P.S. Please, let me know if there's any better way to show this (preferably referencing a textbook)