This might be an odd question to ask, $$a - a^2 + a^3 - a^4 + ... = \frac{a}{1+a}$$
I came across this realisation while trying to understand a feedback loop of a buffer circuit of an op-amp.
The relation every op-amp follows is $V_{out} = A (V_+ - V_-)$ where $A \rightarrow \infty$ and by setting the $V_{out}$ and $V_-$ to be equal, we get a scenario where $V_{in} \frac{A}{A+1} = V_{out}$ or $V_{in} \approx V_{out}$
Trying to visualize how this circuit would converge on this input, I tried seeing how to $V_{out}$ changes as a sequence.
Suppose initially $V_{in}$ is 0, then $V_{out 0} = 0$. Now if $V_{in} = \delta V$, then $V_{out1} = A (V_{in} - V_{out0}) = A\delta V$
In the next step of the sequence, $V_{out2} = A (V_{in} - V_{out1}) = (A-A^2)\delta V$
In general, $$V_{outn} = A (V_{in} - V_{out(n-1)}) = \delta V (A - A^2 + A^3 - .... + (-1)^n A^n)$$
We know that this should converge to $\delta V \frac{A}{A+1}$.
Henceforth, this divergent behaviour somehow converges to finite value.
I was hoping to understand this behaviour better, can anyone guide me on this?