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I'm trying to prove that for any infinite set $X$, not assumed to be in bijection with $\mathbb N$ or with $\mathbb R$, $X$ is bijective with $\{ a, b \} \times X$.

I'm trying to use the Cantor Bernstein theorem, but I'm unable to prove that there exists an injection $\{ a, b \} \times X \rightarrow X$. I've seen for example here an example of an injection for sets of cardinality $| \mathbb N |$, and here for sets of cardinalty $| \mathbb R |$, but these don't seem to generalize to arbitrarily infinite sets.

I've also seen that the situation is more complicated when trying to prove that $X \times X$ injects into $X$, as seen from the second answer here, and that this result relies on the axiom of choice as the first answer points out.

To be honest, I have not gone through the proof given in this answer as it seems tedious. I would expect however that there is a shorter proof with a different idea for this case, as it is only a cartesian product with a finite set, after all.

So, does $|\{ a,b \} \times X| = |X|$ rely on the axiom of choice? And, more importantly, is there a different proof than that given in the answer to the question about $|X \times X| = |X|$?

rosecabbage
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    From the linked post "If choice fails, however, this may no longer be the case: e.g. it is consistent with ZF that there is a set $X$ which is infinite but cannot be partitioned into two infinite sets." If we were to have a bijection $f$ then $X$ could have been partitioned into two sets... the image of $f({(a,x)~:~x\in X})$ and the image of $f({(b,x)~:~x\in X})$, so the same set that worked as a counterexample if choice fails in the other problem also works as a counterexample here if choice fails. – JMoravitz Oct 20 '23 at 13:09
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    Since the claim is false when working in the context where we are without the axiom of choice, it follows that any correct proof for the usual context will require invoking the axiom of choice or an equivalent assumption. – JMoravitz Oct 20 '23 at 13:11
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    The (ZFC) proof I was given for "$|X \times X| = |X|$" was by choosing an initial ordinal $\alpha$ in bijection with $X$, constructing a slightly complicated well-ordering on the set $\alpha \times \alpha$ and showing it's order-isomorphic to $\alpha$. This proof can be simplified a bit in this special case - it's not so hard to show that if $\alpha$ is any limit ordinal, then $2\alpha = \alpha$ in the usual ordinal arithmetic, from which the result follows. This does use full AC, which is not technically necessary - but not using it won't necessarily make the proof simpler :) – Izaak van Dongen Oct 20 '23 at 13:24
  • @IzaakvanDongen I haven't worked with ordinals and I'm unable to follow your proof as it is now. Could you maybe give an answer with the ideas, maybe a bit more elaborated and without the concept of ordinals (if possible)? – rosecabbage Oct 20 '23 at 13:46
  • Does this post help: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1896440/cardinality-of-cartesian-product-of-an-infinite-set-with-n – Porky Oct 20 '23 at 13:59
  • Yeah, I wasn't sure you'd have met ordinals, which is why I left a comment, not an answer! Do you know what "Zorn's lemma" and "well-orders" are? It's kind of unavoidable to use some machinery like this, because general sets that you have no information about don't give you a foothold to work with in ZFC without doing something like well-ordering them. I'd be happy to write an answer based only on the fact that $X$ can be well-ordered, or using Zorn's lemma, but the proofs and definitions underlying these facts are frankly much more work to understand than the eventual argument! – Izaak van Dongen Oct 20 '23 at 14:06
  • I'm sorry not to be more helpful. As far as I know, cardinal arithmetic is fairly non-trivial set theory, that you need a number of theorems and lemmas to start proving things about. If you really desperately want to understand why $|X| + |X| = |X|$, I think the best way forward to to find an introductory set theory textbook or set of lecture notes and work through it. The good news is that set theory doesn't have many prerequisites! But it is a very abstract subject. The other option is to wait until you have the chance to take a set theory course (but maybe this isn't an option for you.) – Izaak van Dongen Oct 20 '23 at 14:10
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    @IzaakvanDongen I'd be very happy with an answer using the theorem that any set can be well ordered or using Zorn's lemma (whichever is more convenient with you), I'm familiar with both of them, I've used Zorn's lemma in particular in a lot of proofs. I just haven't used ordinals before. – rosecabbage Oct 20 '23 at 16:57
  • Actually it’s not too difficult to show this statement is equivalent to the statement that if $A,B$ are infinite and $B$ is equinumerous to $A$ then $A$ union $B$ is equinumerous to $A$. My proof of the latter uses $A$ x $A$ is equinumerous to $A$ for infinite $A$. I suspect there are no shortcuts. – Porky Oct 21 '23 at 17:42
  • I'm sure you know how to prove it if $X=\mathbb N$ or if $X$ is countably infinite. Using the axiom of choice (e.g. in the form of Zorn's lemma) you can prove that any infinite set $X$ can be partitioned into countably infinite sets, and that $X$ is bijective to $Y\times\mathbb N$ for some set $Y$. – bof Oct 22 '23 at 23:44

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Here is an argument using the well-ordering theorem, and no ordinals, which I find fairly intuitive (although some of this intuition probably does come from intuition about ordinal arithmetic). I spell a lot of facts about well-orders out, so if you know those facts already then there will be sentences and paragraphs that you can skip.


Let $\le$ be a well-ordering on $X$.

Firstly, we can assume that $X$ has no largest element. This is because any well-ordering can be (uniquely) decomposed as $X' + F$, where $F$ is finite and $X'$ has no largest element. This notation means that $X'$ and $F$ are well-ordered sets, and $X$ looks like "a copy of $X'$ followed by a copy of $F$". (Proof - if there is a largest element, let $x$ be the smallest element such that $\{y \in X : y \ge x\}$ is finite, and take $X' = \{y \in x : y < x\}$, $F = \{y \in X : y \ge x\}$).

So replace $X$ by the well-ordered set $F + X'$ if needs be (which is obviously the same size as $X' + F$). $X'$ must be non-empty, because $X$ was assumed to be infinite, so $F + X'$ has no largest element, because $X'$ has no largest element.

Now we need to show that $\{0, 1\} \times X$ bijects with $X$.

Note that $\{0, 1\} \times X$ is well-ordered by the colexicographic order induced by the usual order on $\{0, 1\}$ and the order $\le$ on $X$. If you think of $X$ as a discrete line of points, this order looks like what you get if you replace every point of $X$ by a copy of $\{0, 1\}$, or in other words, two points. Now I claim that this ordering is actually isomorphic to $(X, \le)$. Hopefully if you think about $X = \Bbb N$, for example, this is believable - in that case, having countably many copies of $\{0, 1\}$ next to each other is obviously the same order type as $\Bbb N$.

In fact, I think the nicest way to prove this conceptually is to prove that whenever $X$ is a well-ordering with no greatest element, then we can decompose $X$ as $\Bbb N \times X''$ for some well-ordered set $X''$ (think of this as saying that $X$ is a number of copies of $\Bbb N$).

Proof: take $X''$ to be the subset of elements of $X$ that have no direct predecessor in the ordering on $X$. Then the map $\Bbb N \times X'' \to X$ which sends $(n, x)$ to the $n$th successor of $x$ is an order isomorphism. (Take $0$ to be in $\Bbb N$ here).

It's well-defined, since $X$ has no largest elements.

It's strictly order-preserving, because if $x_1 < x_2$ have no direct predecessors, then the $n$th successor of $x_1$ is always less than $x_2$, by induction on $n$, and clearly if $n < m$ then the $n$th successor of $x_1$ is less than the $m$th successor of $x_1$. Hence it is also injective.

It's surjective, because any element of $X$ has only finitely many direct predecessors (otherwise the infinite sequence of direct predecessors would be a set with no smallest element).

You can think of this as some sort of transfinite exhaustion process - any well-order with no largest element starts with a copy of $\Bbb N$. Then after that, there is another copy, and another copy, ...

Given this, it's fairly clear that we can just use the bijection between $\{0, 1\} \times \Bbb N$ and $\Bbb N$ in each copy of $\Bbb N$. More formally, we have a chain of isomorphisms of ordered sets: \begin{equation*} \{0, 1\} \times X \cong \{0, 1\} \times (\Bbb N \times X'') \cong (\{0, 1\} \times \Bbb N) \times X'' \cong \Bbb N \times X'' \cong X. \end{equation*} So certainly $\{0, 1\} \times X$ and $X$ biject. (Here I used the fact that products of isomorphic total orders are isomorphic, and taking products of total orders is associative up to isomorphism, which are both straightforward.)


You could also have argued directly about cardinalities at the end without even worrying about the ordering anymore: \begin{equation*} |\{0, 1\} \times X| = |\{0, 1\} \times (\Bbb N \times X'')| = |(\{0, 1\} \times \Bbb N) \times X''| = |\Bbb N \times X''| = |X|. \end{equation*} This argument uses similar facts, but you only care about bijections, so they're very slightly more straightforward to prove.

As I mentioned in the comments, this argument is basically a translation of the following:

Choose some limit ordinal $\alpha$ in bijection with $X$. By Euclidean division, we can write $\alpha = \omega \beta$. Hence $\{0, 1\} \times X$ bijects with $2 \cdot \alpha = 2 \cdot \omega \beta = \omega \beta = \alpha$.

Alternatively, one can show by induction that whenever $\alpha$ is a limit ordinal and $\gamma < \alpha$, we have $2 \gamma < \alpha$, from which it follows that $2\alpha \le \alpha$.

Proof: If we know $2\gamma < \alpha$, then $2(\gamma + 1) = 2\gamma + 2 < \alpha$ because $\alpha$ is a limit. Also, if $\gamma < \alpha$ is a limit, then by induction on $\alpha$, we know that $2\delta < \gamma$ for all $\delta < \gamma$. Hence $2\gamma \le \gamma < \alpha$.

To prove the full result that $|X \times X| = |X|$ the argument is quite similar in spirit - you just define a well-ordering on the set $X \times X$ which makes it order-isomorphic to $X$. In that case, the order theory is more important, and so is the specific well-ordering that you choose on $X$ - you have to pick a well-ordering such that for every $x \in X$, the set $\{y \in X: y < x\}$ does not biject with $X$ ("an initial ordinal"). We may assume this because if there is an $x$ violating this, then we can consider the least such $x$ and just replace $X$ by the set $\{y \in X : y < x\}$, which bijects with $X$, but no proper initial segment of which bijects with $X$. This is a much, much stronger property than having no largest element.

Working with this well-ordering can also give an argument that shows $\{0, 1\} \times X$ bijects with $X$, by showing that each of its initial segments embeds into $X$. This does requires a fair bit more order theory, which I think is best understood by learning about ordinals. At that point you also might as well do the full proof for $X \times X$, after which you can easily apply Schröder-Bernstein by injecting $\{0, 1\} \times X$ into $X \times X$.

You can also use Zorn's lemma in various clever, but I think less enlightening ways. For example, the result follows from this already.