So I have a sequence $(x_n)=\frac{1}{2}(x_n+\frac{a}{x_n})$ where $a>1$ and $x_1=1$.
I have to prove it is convergent.I tried with induction to prove that
$a\le x_n^2$ because from that I can easily prove both monotonicity and that it is a bounded sequence.
I check for $x_2$, it works.
Assume it will be true for $n=k$
$a \le x_k^2$
Then prove it for $n = k+1$
$a \le x_k^2$
$a \le (\frac{1}{2}(x_k+\frac{a}{x_k}))^2$
$a \le \frac{1}{4}(x_k^2+2a+\frac{a^2}{x_k^2})$
I am not sure how to prove from this step. I should get somehow $2a \le x_k^2 + \frac{a^2}{x_k^2}$ but I am unsure how.
Thank you for your help in advance.