I was thinking if I could solve the sum $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2+1}$, and I reached using the laplace transform of the sine at the integral $\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin(t)}{e^t-1} dt$. I entered the sum into Wolfram Alpha, and it gave me $\frac{1}{2}(\pi \coth(\pi) - 1)$. How it reached this value?? If someone can help me, I will be grateful.
MY TRY: $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2+1}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathcal{L}(\sin(t))(s = n) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \int_0^\infty \sin(t)e^{-nt}dt=\int_0^\infty \sin(t)\sum_{n=1}^\infty e^{-nt} dt$$ Observe that $\sum_{n=1}^\infty e^{-nt} = \frac{e^-t}{1-e^-t} = \frac{1}{e^t-1}$. Then $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2+1}=\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin(t)}{e^t-1}dt$$
You may prove it using the expansion of $\sin(t)$ as powers of $t$ and $\displaystyle \zeta(s) =\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^s} = \frac{1}{\Gamma(s)} \int_0^\infty \frac{x ^ {s-1}}{e ^ x - 1},dx$ or better using complex integration but I didn't try this...
– Raymond Manzoni Oct 08 '23 at 18:22