Can you please clarify how to prove this?
$$\int_{0}^{\pi}\left(\frac{1+\cos t}{2}\right)^{k}\operatorname{d}t>\int_{0}^{\pi}\left(\frac{1+\cos t}{2}\right)^{k}\sin t\operatorname{d}t$$
Here, $k=1,2,3,...$
This is from Section 4.24 in Rudin Real and Complex Analysis. This inequality is part of the proof to show that there is a trigonometric Polynomial approximation for all continuous complex periodic functions.
My question is about showing that the condition is greater than ">" as opposed to ">=".
I am able to plot these functions and sort of intuitively see this as shown below.
