My original problem that I encounter was:
"Let $D$ be a domain symmetric about the real-axis and containing the real axis. Suppose that $f:D \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ analytic on $D$ and that when $x$ is real, $f(x)$ is pure imaginary. Show $-\overline{f(z)}=f(\overline{z})$."
Now, my idea has been to show that $\overline{f(\overline{z})}$ and $-f(z)$ are both analytic on $D$. Then, since these two are equal on the real-axis, the must be equal everywhere. However, I'm having trouble showing that $f$ analytic implies that $\overline{f(\overline{z})}$ is also analytic. I'm not sure how $f$ being able to be expanded as a power series around points in $D$ means that $\overline{f(\overline{z})}$ can be expanded as a power series around points in $D$. Could anyone let me know how I should proceed from here?