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I’m relatively new to mathematics, and I admit I’m still trying to grasp the concept of infinity, so there might be some errors in my thinking.

I understand that $\infty$ is not a real number, which means standard mathematical operations don’t apply to it. I’ve come across the idea that there can be different magnitudes of infinity (please correct me if I’m mistaken).

$$ \infty_a > \infty_b $$

Let’s imagine 2 functions, $f_x$ & $f_y$, of time.

At a constant time, $c$,

$$f_x(c) = f_y(c)$$

From this, we can define two perpendicular line segments, $X$ and $Y$, whose midpoint is a fixed point. Their lengths are determined by $f_x$ and $f_y$, starting at the same time.

Hence, at any time $c$,

$$|X| = |Y| \text{, where } |l| = \frac{\text{length of line segment}}{2}$$

Now, let’s introduce another line, $L$, with the same properties as $X$ and $Y$, but with variable angles between $X$ or $Y$.

So, at a constant time,

$$|X| = |Y| = |L| \text{, where } |l| = \frac{\text{length of line segment}}{2}$$

According to the definition of a Cartesian plane, any line drawn from the midpoint is in the Cartesian plane till infinity. In other words it can’t be bigger than axises in magnitude that are in plane.

If we fix the maximum length of the lines, we can conclude that the plane will have the boundary shape of a circle, as the distance from the origin to the end is equal to $|X| = |Y| = |L|$.

Additionally, if time increases infinitely, we can infer that it will always form a circle.

My question is, based on the above reasoning, can we assert that the coordinate system is circular in 2D and spherical in 3D at infinity? Or is this logic only applicable to real numbers, or can we not be certain?

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    Your notation is confusing. You have $f_x, f_y$ and a fixed time x. Is that the same x? You have line segments X and Y but I cannot see any logical connection between those and the $f$ functions, why they are somehow perpendicular and why they meet. I don't see the role played by $l$ here either. – Paul Sep 11 '23 at 16:44
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    You are confused about infinity? You're not the first one, see Georg Cantor. Have a look a Cardinal numbers, to get even more confused but to finally clear your thoughts. – Gyro Gearloose Sep 11 '23 at 16:59
  • @paul I admit my explanation is bad here. No I just meant at any constant time. There is no relation between x. $X$ & $Y$ are $\perp$ because we made it. Line $L$ is just demonstrating that in plane we can have every point in sum of infinite lines passing through midpoint. And since we fixed max posible length so every line will equal and thus cover circle – Prabhas Kumar Sep 11 '23 at 17:05
  • @gyro I’ll look into it tomorrow morning. – Prabhas Kumar Sep 11 '23 at 17:05
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    Another aspect of infinity is to think of it as an (unreachable) limit. If that's your question, then topology is your subject. But don't expect quick an short answers there. – Gyro Gearloose Sep 11 '23 at 17:06
  • @gyro So basically my reasoning is not possible or possible but with collect? – Prabhas Kumar Sep 11 '23 at 17:08
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    Your question is unclear, so I can't judge about your reasoning. The very concept of infinity is unclear, and many attempts to fix it result in very different definitions. Take your time and don't expect short answers. – Gyro Gearloose Sep 11 '23 at 17:13
  • @gyro I’ll look into those topics and try to reconstruct my reasoning mathematically, if I think it’s still possible after understanding concepts of infinity in future. Thanks – Prabhas Kumar Sep 11 '23 at 17:17
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    You seem to have described a circlular region that grows over time so that every point in the space is eventually contained in the region. This doesn't mean that the space itself is circular; you could do the same thing with a growing square or any other shape. Maybe I'm misunderstanding your idea. – Karl Sep 11 '23 at 17:34
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    There is no particular reason to look at the cartesian plane as a growing disk, as someone else commented: you can look at it as a growing square or whatever. In addition, you can also imagine that the "point at infinity" is the same for all directions, i.e. the cartesian plane is the same as a sphere without one point (the point at infinity). – Jean-Armand Moroni Sep 11 '23 at 17:46
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    Also, you might be missing the fact that the usual Cartesian plane already is infinitely large (i.e. unbounded) even though it has no "infinity points". The same is true of the real number line (and the set of natural numbers, in a different way). A set can have infinite size without including an infinite element. – Karl Sep 11 '23 at 17:48
  • @karl okay let’s assume $x$ is equal to largest infinity. It’s not possible - I know; but real number is also never ending. There is no infinity. We just made it. So if we have a largest line $(=x)$ then all lines are bounded to have the same length $(x)$ as there is no larger number than $x$. And wouldn’t that make it circle? – Prabhas Kumar Sep 12 '23 at 03:52
  • @jean okay let’s assume $x$ is equal to largest infinity. It’s not possible - I know; but real number is also never ending. There is no infinity. We just made it. So if we have a largest line $(=x)$ then all lines are bounded to have the same length $(x)$ as there is no larger number than $x$. And wouldn’t that make it circle? – Prabhas Kumar Sep 12 '23 at 03:54
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    @PrabhasKumar You are trying intuitive reasonings, and that does not work easily with $\infty$, whose rules are very different from numbers ;-) Example about your "there is no larger number than $x$": if there is no larger number than $\infty$, then $2 \infty = \infty$, so $\infty=0$. The best way to talk about $\infty$ is to use $\forall \exists$ reasonings. Notably for what it means to "form a circle" at infinity. Also, you could use functions defined on the cartesian plane, not just the points themselves, that should help. – Jean-Armand Moroni Sep 12 '23 at 06:49
  • @jean to solve $2*\infty = \infty$ I purposed a function of time. And at any time the value of function will define the max. Possible length of line in that defined plane. So logically speaking at all real number time it would create circle then can we say this behaviour happen at infinity too. Also from your logic any real number can be multiplied by 2 and result will be number greater than that number. So there is no max number and hence no infinity – Prabhas Kumar Sep 12 '23 at 12:14
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    You're kinda like me, OP, but you do what I do better! To my reckoning, yer ship passed the seaworthiness test. You might wanna do some reading on cosmology. – Agent Smith Sep 12 '23 at 13:14
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    Not a duplicate, but the discussion here may be of interest: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/4155942/86418 – Andrew D. Hwang Sep 12 '23 at 13:39
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    @andrew I checked it out but unfortunately it’s above my understanding right now. I’ll have to read more about related topics first. But thanks – Prabhas Kumar Sep 12 '23 at 13:53
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    Hello @AgentSmith from matrix. I can’t figure out if you’re being sarcastic or not. – Prabhas Kumar Sep 12 '23 at 13:56

2 Answers2

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You're right that in some sense, the plane has the same infinite length in every direction. You could think of it as circular for this reason, but this is dubious because "infinite length" is not precise in a geometric way.

Imagine stretching the plane in the $x$-direction, taking every point $(x,y)$ to the point $(2x,y)$. The resulting set of points is the same as the original set, because every original point $(x,y)$ is obtained from a point $(\frac x2,y)$. So "stretching" does nothing to the plane as a whole. In contrast, a stretched circle is no longer a circle. There's no bounded geometric shape that remains the same when stretched, so it's misleading to think of the plane as having such a shape.

Related topics:

  • Measure theory is the standard tool for defining sizes like lengths and areas. There's only one infinite size in measure theory, denoted $+\infty$.
  • Cardinality is a different notion of size that can be used to compare infinite sets (giving us "different magnitudes of infinity"), but it's not useful in geometry: a small line segment has the same cardinality as the entire plane.
  • Topology is a tool for studying how a space "fits together" without using geometric measurements. The infinite plane, the interior of a circle, and the interior of a rectangle all have the same topology.
Karl
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    Not to be overly pedantic, but $-\infty$ does appear in measure theory as well – Lorago Sep 12 '23 at 08:07
  • Your logic about stretching made me confused. If you stretch $x$ axis to double its length wouldn't that make no of points in plane double. Which can’t be possible as the result will also be a real plane. Also how can you multiply real number with $\infty$ – Prabhas Kumar Sep 12 '23 at 12:05
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    @PrabhasKumar The stretching doubles the cardinality of the set, but the result is the same cardinality. The cardinality of the plane is $\mathfrak c$, and we have $2\mathfrak c=\mathfrak c$. – Karl Sep 12 '23 at 16:06
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About "we can conclude that the plane will have the boundary shape of a circle, as the distance from the origin to the end is equal to $|X| = |Y| = |L|$".

This is true for the usual norm, i.e. the $L_2$ norm. But however important is this norm for geometry, in practice other norms are also used: $L_1$, $L_{\infty}$, the pseudo-norm $L_0$, and in general the $L_p$ norms with $p \in \mathbb R_{\gt 0}$. Cf. as usual the relevant Wikipedia page. These norms are much in use in applied maths: operational research, probability theory, data science, A.I., and in some functional analysis.

With these norms, the shape of the unit ball is: a square with its edges parallel to the axes for $L_{\infty}$, a "diamond" i.e. a square with its edges parallel to the diagonals for $L_1$, various shapes intermediate between circle and square for $L_p$ with $p \gt 2$, between diamond and circle for $1 \lt p \lt 2$, between cross and a diamond for $0 \lt p \lt 1$. Cf. Unit Ball with p-norm.

This being said, when considering infinity, whether it is in $\mathbb R$ or $\mathbb R ^2$ or $\mathbb R ^n$, one has to introduce a structure through which infinity is looked at, because infinity in itself is not defined.
For example it can be functions: we look at the behavior of $f(x)$ when $\lVert x \rVert \to +\infty$; and in the case of $\mathbb R ^n, n > 1$, we have to specify the trajectory of $x$ when $\lVert x \rVert \to +\infty$. This enables to say that all conics, in projective geometry, are just ellipses, that happen to cross the line at infinity (for hyperbola) or be tangent to it (for parabola). Note that in this case the "edge at infinity" is not a circle, but a circle with its opposite points glued together: the real projective plane.

Instead of gluing (= making same, using equivalence classes) opposite points of each set of parallel lines, you may want to keep two points for each set of parallel lines, one for each direction. In which case the edge at infinity looks like a circle; although without any metrics defined upon it so far, so that we could as well name it a square, or whatever other Jordan curve, and especially the $L_p$ unit balls shape.
Or you may want to glue together all points at infinity, which means, for example when studying functions $\mathbb R \to \mathbb R ^2$, making a single equivalence class of all functions such that $\lVert f(x) \rVert \to +\infty$ when $x \to +\infty$. In which case the overall shape of this extended cartesian place is that of a sphere.
Or you may want to glue sets of parallel lines so as to generate the two other usual topologies (after sphere and projective plane): torus and Klein bottle.

Or you may want to use other criteria, to define infinity in the cartesian plane, than parallel lines, e.g. algebraic curves with whatever equivalence classes may fit.

In summary: the view that the cartesian plane looks like a circle at infinity requires a succession of specific choices:

  • We are interested by lines, i.e. we will use lines to analyze whatever we want to analyze at infinity (e.g. it may be conics). We might have chosen a broader selection of curves, or other techniques.
  • We consider as equivalent any parallel lines, and we consider their two directions as two separate points at infinity. Note that the most usual plane completion at infinity, the real projective plane, which has plenty of applications (e.g. optics), considers the two directions of parallel lines as the same point at infinity.
  • We consider these points at infinity to form a circle. There should of course be a precise definition of what we mean by that, but it would probably include some kind of norm, and the circle is a shape generated by the $L_2$ norm; other norms generate other shapes.
  • I’m sorry to ask this question but what is norm? – Prabhas Kumar Sep 12 '23 at 12:01
  • I’ll be honest I didn’t understand most of it. I think I should learn more about relevant topics first. – Prabhas Kumar Sep 12 '23 at 12:09
  • @PrabhasKumar A norm is a real function that returns a "length" of a vector, which verifies some properties: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Norm_(mathematics). A norm can be used to create a distance, a real function of two points, but the reverse is not true: some distances have no associated norm (https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/172028/difference-between-norm-and-distance). Sorry my explanations were not clear enough. Yes, you should learn about norm, normed vector space, metric space, etc. – Jean-Armand Moroni Sep 12 '23 at 12:41
  • Thanks for explaining. I’ll explore and learn about it and come in future. I’ll keep this question open just in case someone answers the question. I hope you don’t mind. – Prabhas Kumar Sep 12 '23 at 13:04
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    @PrabhasKumar I added a summary to the answer, to try to be clearer. Yes, please leave the question open, no problem at all. I don't believe my answer is the best possible, by far. – Jean-Armand Moroni Sep 12 '23 at 13:07