Paraphrasing Atiyah, MacDonald, Introduction to Commutative Algebra, Chapter 10, p. 102: let $G$ be a topological abelian group. Then:
I understand everything what is on this excerpt. Also, the set $\hat{G}$ has a topology explained here. My question is: with this topology, is $\hat{G}$ a topological group? On the one hand, if we denote $\hat{U}\subset \hat{G}$ to the open subset induced by an open subset $U\subset G$, then one has $-\hat{U}=\widehat{-U}$, so I am actually asking:
Is the sum operation $\hat{G}\times\hat{G}\to\hat{G}$ continuous?
None of the previous questions I've found on MSE asking about $\hat{G}$ address this issue. The following are my thoughts on the problem:
We make some reductions.
Denote $G'$ to the set of Cauchy sequences with terms in $G$. Denote $G'_0\subset G'$ to the subgroup of Cauchy sequences converging to zero. Then $\hat{G}=G'/G'_0$. We endow $G'$ with the following topology: the open sets are of the form $U'\subset G'$, were $U\subset G$ is open and $U'$ is the set of Cauchy sequences $x$ such that for all $y\in G'$ equivalent to $x$, it holds $y_n\in U$ for almost all $n$. On the other hand, note that $\pi^{-1}(\hat{U})=U'$, where $\pi:G'\to\hat{G}$ is the natural projection.
A quotient group of an abelian topological group by an arbitrary subgroup is an abelian topological group with the quotient topology.
If $A$ is any abelian group and $\nu:A\times A\to A$ is the sum, then $\nu^{-1}(S)=\bigcup_{x\in A}S\times(S+x)$.
Combining 1, 2, 3 (plus the observation $-(U')=(-U)'$), it suffices to show that $U'+x$ is open in $G'$, for all $U\subset G$ open and all $x\in G'$. My question is: Why? Let $y\in U'+x$. We want to find an open set $V\subset G$ such that $y\in V'\subset U'+x$. We have $y=z+x$, where $\tilde{z}_n\in U$ for almost all $n$ and all $\tilde{z}\in G'$ equivalent to $z$. But now... what? The only tools at hand are Cauchyness of $x,z$ plus continuity of $+_G:G\times G\to G$, although I am unsure how one can exploit them.
(Now with the corrected definition for $U'$, it is not clear to me that doing the proof in $G'$ is easier than doing the proof in $\hat{G}$.)